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QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true based on the output of “show service- profile circuit server 1/3”. (Choose three.)
300-180 dumps
A. vnic eth0 is pinned to module 0 interface 1.
B. vnic eth1 is pinned to module 1 interface 6.
C. vnic eth0 is pinned to port channel 1.
D. vnic eth1 is pinned to port channel 6.
E. A LAN pin group is configured on vnic eth0.
F. A LAN pin group is configured on vnic eth1.
300-180 exam Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 25
Which commands can you enter to see if a component in the Cisco UCS domain generated a core file?
A. 6100-A# scope monitoring
6100-A /monitoring # scope sysdebug
6100-A /monitoring/sysdebug # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
———- ———
B. 6100-A# scope sysdebug
6100-A /sysdebug # scope monitoring
6100-A /sysdebug/monitoring # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
———- ———
C. 6100-A# scope system
6100-A /system # scope monitoring
6100-A /system/monitoring # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
———- ———
D. 6100-A# scope cores
6100-A /cores # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
———- ———
E. 6100-A# scope logging
6100-A /logging # scope monitoring
6100-A /logging/monitoring # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
———- ———
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which of these does not have an FSM associated with it?
A. vCenter connection
B. service profile
C. server hardware
D. service profile templates
300-180 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
300-180 dumps
Which interface is configured as a management interface for the Cisco UCS chassis?
A. eth0
B. vlan4047
C. eth1
D. eth2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which two options are Cisco UCS default user roles? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Server Equipment Administrator
C. FCoE Administrator
D. Server Resource Administrator
E. LAN Administrator
300-180 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
You have blade servers that run VMware ESXi. Which two tasks do you perform to ensure that all of the components in the Cisco UCS environment use jumbo frames? (Choose two.)
A. Use a QoS policy for the jumbo frames.
B. Configure the MTU on the vSwitch.
C. Configure the fabric interconnect to support 9500-byte frames.
D. Configure the MTU on the vNIC.
E. Configure a QoS policy on the vSwitch.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
UCS-A# scope eth-uplink
UCS-A /eth-uplink # scope fabric a
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric # scope interface 2 3
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface # create mon-src Monitor23
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface/mon-src* # set direction receive
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface/mon-src* # commit-buffer
What does the command scope interface 2 3 in the above CLI command sequence do on a Cisco UCS blade server?
A. enters the interface command mode for the specified uplink port
B. enters the interface command mode for the specified Fabric A
C. enters the interface command mode for the specified Fabric B
D. enters slot 3 port 2 specified uplink port
300-180 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
On a Cisco UCS B-Series data center environment; how many default roles are there when utilizing RBAC for security restriction?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
E. 20
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator sees this message in the log while merging switch fabrics. What is the issue?
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A. Two switches have different zone names with the same members.
B. Two switches have different zone set names with the same members.
C. Two switches have the same zone set and zone name, but with different members.
D. Two switches have the same zone set and zone name with the same members.
300-180 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which three statements are true about using the debug command to resolve an HSRP issue on the Cisco Nexus platform? (Choose three.)
A. The debug command should be allowed to run for at least an hour.
B. The administrator can log debug messages to a special log file to avoid flooding the console.
C. Open a second Telnet or SSH session before you enter any debug commands so that if the debug session overwhelms the console, you can stop the
message output.
D. Use the debug command only under the guidance of Cisco Technical Support.
E. Use the Ethanalyzer remote interface command to capture packets.
F. The debug peer-gateway command should be used to isolate the problem.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 34
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300-180 dumps
300-180 dumps
300-180 dumps
Cisco UCS users residing behind N5K2 are complaining about poor performance with a single LAN application in the data center. Which statement best explains what is wrong with N5K2?
A. Traffic balancing is based on the destination IP address.
B. Port channel members do not have equal bandwidths.
C. The trunk between the Nexus 5000 switches is filtering all VLANs.
D. E2/1 on N7010-C2 is not configured as a trunk for application traffic from N5K2.
300-180 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Which two describe the correct requirements for non-disruptive IOS ISSU on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. updated kickstart and system images must be staged in bootflash on single-supervisor switches
B. updated kickstart and system images must be staged in bootflash on dual-supervisor switches
C. low version skew
D. dual supervisors
E. clock synchronization
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 36
If no traffic was ever sent across the overlay, what will the show mac address-table command on the OTV VDC indicate?
A. invalid command
B. the MAC address of the local OTV join interface
C. the system IDs of all the local OTV edge devices
D. the system IDs of all the local and remote edge devices in the overlay
E. all the MAC addresses learned on the extended VLAN
300-180 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.
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Customer encounters the problem as shown in the exhibit. What is the cause of the problem?
A. No server was requested or received by the FLOGI database.
B. One external link must be up for server interface to be up.
C. Multiple external links must be up for the server to come up.
D. Internal links are down and must be up for the server interface to be up.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which option describes why the merge status for any application shows “In Progress” for a prolonged period of time when a new switch is added to the fabric?
A. The new switch must be upgraded to match the same version of code as the original switch.
B. The ports between the switches are not trunking all VSANs.
C. The application needs to be started on both switches.
D. There are outstanding changes that must be committed.
E. The merge status cannot occur until a copy running-config startup-config is done.
300-180 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
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300-180 dumps
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300-180 dumps
While the Nexus 7010 switches are configured with vPC, the Nexus 5000 switch connections to each Nexus 7010 are configured as regular port-channels. Which
statement best describes the problem affecting the port channel on N5K1?
A. LACP is not configured to initiate negotiations.
B. N5K1 must also be configured with vPC.
C. load-balancing is not configured correctly on N5K1.
D. The remote ends of the port-channel on N5K1 cannot use the same interface.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.
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Which two commands are missing to enable OTV between N7K-A and N7K-B? (Choose two.)
A. otv site-vlan on both N7Ks
B. create vlan 5-10
C. enable virtual port-channel on vlan 5-10
D. enable eigrp on both N7Ks
E. enable hsrp feature
300-180 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 41
Which statement is true regarding Cisco FabricPath?
A. It is necessary to first install the Cisco FabricPath feature set in the default VDC.
B. Cisco FabricPath is only available on Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches with the Supervisor 2 engine.
C. Cisco FabricPath cannot be disabled explicitly for a specific VDC.
D. If the Cisco FabricPath feature is not installed, the fabricpath keyword will be available in the feature-set command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
What are the minimum number and maximum number of members that a SAN PortChannel can have?
A. 1, 16
B. 2, 16
C. 1, 32
D. 2, 32
E. 1 minimum with no maximum
F. 2 minimum with no maximum
300-180 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 43
What are three reasons that could cause fabric merge problems in a Cisco SAN? (Choose three.)
A. Failure occurs when a switch supports more than 2000 zones per VSAN but its neighbor does not.
B. All devices are in the same VSAN.
C. The merged fabrics contain inconsistent data that could not be merged.
D. Both host and storage are logged in to the same SAN.
E. Small configurations may wipe out the large configurations.
F. The VSAN database is error-disabled.
Correct Answer: ACE

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QUESTION 1
How should the architect implement high availability (HA) with 12 NetScaler appliances?
A. In each datacenter, deploy an HA pair in the internal network for load balancing and an HA pair in the DMZ for Gateway traffic.
B. In each datacenter, deploy an HA pair in the internal network for Gateway traffic and an HA pair in the DMZ for load balancing.
C. Create three NetScaler virtual servers configured with the subnets of the three sites, and bind them to redirection policies that are configured in ICA Proxy mode using the StoreFront server.
D. Create six NetScaler virtual servers in HA pairs configured with the subnets of the three sites, and bind them to redirection policies that are configured in ICA Proxy mode using the StoreFront server.
1Y0-401 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Scenario:
CGE is experiencing numerous issues with its existing profile management solution. The Citrix Architect managing the project is tasked with designing a solution that alleviates existing issues and, if possible, minimizes the loss of existing customizations. Configuration changes need to be implemented quickly and with minimal complexity.
Why does enabling \’Profile streaming\’ when configuring Citrix Profile management to allow standardization of profiles benefit CGE\’s Sales end-user group?
A. It allows for faster logons.
B. It simplifies home drive cleanup.
C. It minimizes the required storage needed for folder redirection.
D. It improves application performance.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two issues could CGE\’s current home directory storage strategy cause? (Choose two.)
A. Slow logons
B. Unverified data backups
C. High IOPS on the storage appliance
D. High CPU usage on the XenApp servers
1Y0-401 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Why is a design with 12 NetScaler appliances, in which each datacenter deploys three NetScaler virtual servers configured with the subnets of the three sites and binded to redirection policies that are configured in ICA Proxy mode using StoreFront server, the best remote access design?
A. It allows end users to connect to their primary datacenter through a secure, reliable, and cost-effective solution.
B. It provides redundancy, while optimizing external WAN traffic.
C. It segments the Gateway and load-balancing features of the NetScaler appliances.
D. It allows for the expected expansion of remote access usage and provides SSL VPN functionality for future needs.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
How many Provisioning Services servers should the architect install in each of the three configured sites?
A. One server in each datacenter
B. Two servers in each datacenter
C. Three servers in each datacenter
D. Two servers in the primary datacenter, two servers in the secondary datacenter, and one server in the remaining datacenter
1Y0-401 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect is designing a multi-server Provisioning Services solution for CGE. The solution must be highly available and minimize the risk of vDisk inconsistency. What should the architect recommend?
A. Configure a separate local vDisk store on each Provisioning Services server and a daily robocopy script across the two stores.
B. Configure a separate local vDisk store on each Provisioning Services server and configure the two stores in a DFS-R group.
C. Configure a vDisk store on a CIFS share on a NAS for each Provisioning Services server.
D. Create the Provisioning Services vDisk store on a configured, single DFS namespace.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
Which two FlexCast models should a Citrix Architect consider for the Research end-user group? (Choose two.)
A. Remote PC Access
B. Hosted Shared
C. Streamed VHD
D. On-Demand Apps
E. Hosted VDI: Static Persistent
1Y0-401 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
CGE acquires a small energy company that is running MGMT, a proprietary 16-bit application. A Citrix Architect is tasked with deploying this application to the Executives/Management end-user group. The CIO mandates that a FlexCast model must be chosen that resembles this end-user group\’s existing delivery strategy. It is important that a single-image deployment is utilized and that management effort is kept to a minimum for the update process. The availability of a fast rollback plan must also be available after upgrades, since it can often result in system instability. Why is deploying MGMT in a Remote PC environment on Windows 8 with Provisioning Services the best solution?
A. It offers a faster change process.
B. End users are already comfortable working in a shared environment.
C. It prevents XenApp server crashes.
D. It enables faster rollbacks.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Why is deploying two NetScaler appliances – one in the primary and one in the secondary datacenter, configured with failover sites within the NetScaler Gateway the best design solution?
A. It allows end users to connect to their primary datacenter through a secure, reliable, and cost-effective solution.
B. It provides redundancy, while optimizing external WAN traffic.
C. It segments the Gateway and load-balancing features of the NetScaler appliances.
D. It allows for the expected expansion of remote access usage and provides SSL VPN functionality for future needs.
1Y0-401 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases. Why is using a maximum of 32 XenServer hosts, using a shared virtual disk storage repository for XenMotion, high
availability, and the replication and backup of meta information the best design for the resource pools?
A. It addresses all customer requirements by ensuring appropriate design of resource pools, high availability for critical workloads, and a disaster recovery process that leverages a backup solution.
B. It ensures simple setup with redundancy.
C. It bases resource pools on roles, and facilitates the movement of workloads from one resource pool to another in the event of maintenance or disaster recovery.
D. It ensures the separation of infrastructure and virtual desktop workloads, which optimizes performance and high availability.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
How many Provisioning Services servers should the architect install in the configured site?
A. Two servers in the primary datacenter, two servers in the secondary datacenter, and one server in the remaining datacenter
B. Three servers in each datacenter
C. Two servers in each datacenter
D. One server in each datacenter
1Y0-401 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Scenario:
CGE acquires a small energy company that is running MGMT, a proprietary 16-bit application. A Citrix Architect is tasked with deploying this application to the Executives/Management end-user group. The CIO mandates that a FlexCast model must be chosen that resembles this end-user group\’s existing delivery strategy. It is important that a single-image deployment is utilized and that management effort is kept to a minimum for the update process. The availability of a fast rollback plan must also be available after upgrades, since it can often result in system instability. How should the architect deploy MGMT in a Hosted VDI environment?
A. As Hosted VDI Static Persistent
B. As Hosted VDI Static
C. As Hosted VDI Random
D. Hosted VDI with SCCM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. Why does using Windows Deployment Services and deploying a standard base image to virtual desktops help manage the image versioning process?
A. It enables rapid rollback.
B. It automates deployment of current and legacy OS versions.
C. It leverages Hyper-V snapshots.
D. It automatically deploys the latest drivers and patches.
1Y0-401 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
How should the architect configure high availability (HA) on a XenServer host to support an iSCSI SAN?
A. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards from the XenServer to the iSCSI storage network and create a NIC bond.
B. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards from the XenServer to the iSCSI storage network and enable Asymmetric Logical Unit Assignment (ALUA).
C. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards to the iSCSI storage network, each on a different Layer 3 network, run the HBA configuration utility, and verify that both can access the iSCSI storage array.
D. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards to the iSCSI storage network, each on a separate Layer 3 network, and enable XenServer Multipathing.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. How should the architect use Hypervisor templates and snapshots to facilitate image management and rollback?
A. By using the Hypervisor API to deploy desktops from templates
B. By using PowerShell to script desktop deployment from templates
C. By using Workflow Studio to deploy desktops from templates
D. By using the Windows Automatic Install Kit (WAIK)
1Y0-401 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Scenario: A Citrix Architect identifies a fault in the Active Directory design for CGE\’s existing XenApp environments. Group Policy Objects (GPOs) from OUs across the Active Directory apply when end users log on to XenApp applications, creating undesirable end-user experiences. The architect determines that CGE needs full control over which GPOs apply in the new environment. Why would creating Citrix policies within a GPO, filtered by Client Name, ensure full control over which GPOs are applied?
A. It provides central management and control.
B. It ensures that only policies with the correct filter in Active Directory are applied.
C. It ensures that only settings located in the root OU are applied.
D. It ensures that only Citrix policies are applied on the Virtual Desktop Agents where end users log on.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Why would the architect choose active-active bonding when configuring network interfaces for storage networks?
A. It provides load balancing of VM traffic across multiple physical NIC interfaces at a per guest basis, and offers improved distribution of traffic across physical interfaces in the bond.
B. It sends all guest VM traffic in the bond to an active interface, which provides the best distribution of network load.
C. It uses a hashing algorithm, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
D. It uses a round robin load-balancing policy, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
1Y0-401 vce Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
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A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
300-115 exam Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can analyze network traffic passing through ports or VLANs by using SPAN or RSPAN to send a copy of the traffic to another port on the switch or on another switch that has been connected to a network analyzer or other monitoring or security device. SPAN copies (or mirrors) traffic received or sent (or both) on source ports or source VLANs to a destination port for analysis. RSPAN supports source ports, source VLANs, and destination ports on different switches (or different switch stacks), enabling remote monitoring of multiple switches across your network. The traffic for each RSPAN session is carried over a user-specified RSPAN VLAN that is dedicated for that RSPAN session in all participating switches. The RSPAN traffic from the source ports or VLANs is copied into the RSPAN VLAN and forwarded over trunk ports carrying the RSPAN VLAN to a destination session monitoring the RSPAN VLAN. Each RSPAN source switch must have either ports or VLANs as RSPAN sources. The destination is always a physical port
Reference:

QUESTION 7
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable. Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here we have a situation where one switch is using active mode, which is an LACP mode, and the other is using desirable, which is a PAGP mode. You can not mix the LACP and PAGP protocols to form an etherchannel. Here is a summary of the various etherchannel modes:
EtherChannel PAgP Modes
Mode Description
auto Places a port into a passive negotiating state, in which the port responds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets. This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from differ- ent switches in the switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel).
desirable Places a port into an active negotiating state, in which the port starts negotia- tions with other ports by sending PAgP packets. This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from differ- ent switches in the switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel).
EtherChannel LACP Modes
Mode Description
active Places a port into an active negotiating state in which the port starts negotia- tions with other ports by sending LACP packets. passive Places a port into a passive negotiating state in which the port responds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.

QUESTION 8
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses, IP addresses, or Layer 4 port numbers, and either source mode, destination mode, or both. The mode you select applies to all EtherChannels that you configure on the switch. Use the option that provides the greatest variety in your configuration. For example, if the traffic on a channel only goes to a single MAC address (which is the case in this example, since all traffic is going to the same web server), use of the destination MAC address results in the choice of the same link in the channel each time. Use of source addresses or IP addresses can result in a better load balance.

QUESTION 9
Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs. This command is configured globally: monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 8, 39, 52 What is the result of the implemented command?
A. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
B. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
C. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
D. The trunk’s native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
E. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The “monitor session filter” command is used to specify which VLANS are to be port mirrored using SPAN. This example shows how to monitor VLANs 1 through 5 and VLAN 9 when the SPAN source is a trunk interface: Switch(config)# monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 5 , 9

QUESTION 10
A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships. What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?
A. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
B. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If all of the routers are connected to each other using a layer 2 switch, then each router will only have the single switch port that it connects to as its neighbor. Even though multiple routing neighbors can be formed over a layer 2 network, only the physical port that it connects to will be seen as a CDP neighbor. CDP can be used to determine the physical topology, but not necessarily the logical topology.

QUESTION 11
After the implementation of several different types of switches from different vendors, a network engineer notices that directly connected devices that use Cisco Discovery Protocol are not visible. Which vendor-neutral protocol could be used to resolve this issue?
A. Local Area Mobility
B. Link Layer Discovery Protocol
C. NetFlow
D. Directed Response Protocol
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the Internet Protocol Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. LLDP performs functions similar to several proprietary protocols, such as the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP).

QUESTION 12
Several new switches have been added to the existing network as VTP clients. All of the new switches have been configured with the same VTP domain, password, and version. However, VLANs are not passing from the VTP server (existing network) to the VTP clients. What must be done to fix this?
A. Remove the VTP domain name from all switches with “null” and then replace it with the new domain name.
B. Configure a different native VLAN on all new switches that are configured as VTP clients.
C. Provision one of the new switches to be the VTP server and duplicate information from the existing network.
D. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be transferred.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP allows switches to advertise VLAN information between other members of the same VTP domain. VTP allows a consistent view of the switched network across all switches. There are several reasons why the VLAN information can fail to be exchanged. Verify these items if switches that run VTP fail to exchange
VLAN information:
VTP information only passes through a trunk port. Make sure that all ports that interconnect switches are configured as trunks and are actually trunking. Make sure that if EtherChannels are created between two switches, only Layer 2 EtherChannels propagate VLAN information. Make sure that the VLANs are active in all the devices. One of the switches must be the VTP server in a VTP domain. All VLAN changes must be done on this switch in order to have them propagated to the VTP clients. ·The VTP domain name must match and it is case sensitive. CISCO and cisco are two different domain names.
Make sure that no password is set between the server and client. If any password is set, make sure that the password is the same on both sides.

QUESTION 13
After implementing VTP, the extended VLANs are not being propagated to other VTP switches. What should be configured for extended VLANs?
A. VTP does not support extended VLANs and should be manually added to all switches.
B. Enable VTP version 3, which supports extended VLAN propagation.
C. VTP authentication is required when using extended VLANs because of their ability to cause network instability.
D. Ensure that all switches run the same Cisco IOS version. Extended VLANs will not propagate to different IOS versions when extended VLANs are in use.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP version 1 and VTP version 2 do not propagate configuration information for extended- range VLANs (VLAN numbers 1006 to 4094). You must configure extended-range VLANs manually on each network device. VTP version 3 supports extended-range VLANs (VLAN numbers 1006 to 4094). If you convert from VTP version 3 to VTP version 2, the VLANs in the range 1006 to 4094 are removed from VTP control.
Reference:

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Pass4itsure Cisco Exam 700-802 Dumps Blog Series 1-23 

1.Which three name services use hierarchical name space? (Choose three.)
A.NIS
B.NFS
C.DNS
D.UNS
E.NIS+
F.LDAP
700-802 exam Correct:C E F

2.You administer a growing network of systems, using the NIS naming service, with numerous slave servers. As the number of users and systems grows, performance is going down, updates are overloading the network, and the volume of data held on each server is becoming too large, causing difficulties in making backups quickly. You need to increase network security. What are two solutions to this problem? (Choose two.)
A.configure your network to use NIS
B.configure your network to use FTP
C.configure your network to use NFS
D.configure your network to use NIS+
E.configure your network to use DNS
F.configure your network to use LDAP
Correct:D F

3.You have a network with 115 Solaris systems using no naming service. There are no security concerns. Many users have accounts on several different systems. You want your users to be able to login on any system and have them use just one password. You also want to keep the network administration as simple as possible. Which action allows you to meet these requirements?
A.configure your network to use NIS
B.configure your network to use NFS
C.configure your network to use NIS+
D.configure your network to use DNS
E.configure your network to use LDAP
700-802 dumps Correct:A

4.Which two statements about the RBAC security mechanism are true? (Choose two.)
A.The roleadd command uses the same default shell to useradd.
B.The roleadd command uses very similar syntax to the useradd command.
C.The -P option, used to associate an account with a profile, may only be used with roleadd.
D.Using usermod -R rolename username updates the user_attr file to associate a user with a role.
Correct:B D

5.Which shell is the default when adding an account using roleadd?
A./usr/bin/ksh
B./usr/bin/sh
C./usr/bin/pfsh
D./usr/bin/pfjsh
E./usr/bin/prsh
F./usr/bin/prksh
700-802 pdf Correct:C

6.You have created an RBAC role which is allowed to perform privileged tasks. You want to allow certain existing users to access the role. Which three actions should you take to ensure that users can access the role? (Choose three.)
A.You give the users the password to the role.
B.You give the users a profile type shell at login.
C.You connect the user to the role through the usermod command.
D.You inform the users that they can access the role through use of the su command.
E.You inform the users that they can access the role through use of a direct login, Telnet, or rlogin.
F.You give the users execute permissions to the privileged commands associated with the role through use of the ACL mechanism.
Correct:A C D

7.In the execution attributes database, what is NOT a valid value for the attr (which is the last field)?
A.euid
B.uid
C.egid
D.suid
700-802 vce Correct:D

8.Which command lists the registered RPC services?
A.ipcs
B.lsrpc
C.rpccall
D.psrinfo
E.rpcinfo
F.rpclist
Correct:E

9.Which statement about an Ethernet address is true?
A.It is unique for every system.
B.It has an entry in the /etc/inet/hosts file.
C.It is a 32-bit address divided into four 8-bit fields.
D.It is a number assigned by the system administrator.
700-802 exam Correct:A

10.Which layer of the seven layer OSI/ISO model resolves packet delivery decisions based on the Ethernet address?
A.session layer
B.network layer
C.physical layer
D.data link layer
Correct:D

11. Given:
The employees table has an index created as follows: create index emp_index1on employees(last_name, first_name desc) Which of the following queries would not require a sort? (Choose 2)
A. select * from employees order by last_name, first_name
B. select * from employees order by last_name ASC, first_name DESC
C. select * from employees order by first_name DESC, last_name ASC
D. select * from employees order by last_name DESC, first_name ASC
700-802 dumps Answer: BD

12. Given: number of worker processes = 10, max parallel degree = 5, max scan parallel degree = 4. Table A has the following characteristics: Datarows locking, No indexes, a column named price, 5000 rows, 4 partitions. A user executes the following query: Select * from A where price < $10. Which of the following conditions would cause the query to run in serial instead of parallel? (Choose 2)
A. there are not enough worker processes available at run time
B. the database option select into/bulkcopy/pllsort is not set to true
C. the partition skew is 2.3
D. the database is set for single user mode
E. max parallel degree does not match the number of partitions
Answer: AC

13. Which of the following statements describes readpast locking? (Choose 2)
A. It can be specified at the session, transaction, and table level.
B. It allows insert, update, and delete commands to read past any incompatible lock.
C. It allows readers to not block writers.
D. It allows select and readtext queries to silently skip all rows or pages locked with incompatible locks.
700-802 pdf Answer: BD

14. The ACME company has an 8 CPU SMP system running Adaptive Server Enterprise (ASE). The ASE server has been allocated 1.5 GB of 2.0 GB of memory available. The ASE server has been allocated 2 engines. There are 1,000 concurrent users of the ASE server. The sp_sysmon report shows the spinlock contention rate averages 70-80% for the default data cache. Which steps can be taken to correct this performance problem?
A. Add a 16KB buffer pool to the server.
B. Increase the size of the tempdb database.
C. Add two engines to the ASE server.
D. Add named caches to and bind the appropriate objects to the named caches.
E. Add more locks to the server.
Answer: D

15. What is the purpose of dsync flag?
A. to synchronize primary and mirrored devices
B. to synchronize primary and secondary databases
C. to control whether writes to operating system files are buffered or not
D. to control Backup Server’s access to a dump device
700-802 vce Answer: C

16. All of the following execution class associations exist in the ASE when user FRED, running application ctisql, logs in. Which one will be applied to FREDs session?
A. sp_bindexeclass ctisql, AP, NULL, EC1
B. sp_bindexeclass ctisql, AP, FRED, EC2
C. sp_bindexeclass FRED, LG, NULL, EC1
D. sp_bindexeclass FRED, LG, ctisql, EC2
E. It depends on the order of the creation of the bindings
Answer: B

17. The reorg command may be used to: (Choose 2)
A. Compact a table that uses datarows locking.
B. Reclaim unused space in a table that uses allpages locking.
C. Reclaim unused space in an index that uses datapages locking.
D. Rebuild a table that uses allpages locking.
700-802 exam Answer: AC

18. What are some ways to reduce last data page lock contention for inserts? (Choose 3)
A. alter the table to use the Datarows locking scheme
B. alter the table to use the Datapages locking scheme
C. partition the table
D. create a clustered index on a random key
E. increase the server configuration for the number of locks
F. increase the server configuration for the deadlock checking period
Answer: ACD

19. The “abstract plan language” is:
A. A language used to tell the optimizer how to process a query.
B. The internal command language used by sp_sysmon.
C. A new type of command language for creating very complicated queries.
D. The language used internally by the server for planning the most efficient use of memory.
700-802 dumps Answer: A

20. Which two actions can cause locking on system tables in tempdb? (Choose 2.)
A. create table in tempdb
B. select into a #temptable
C. worktables created for reformatting
D. selecting from a large table in tempdb
Answer: AB

21. When a row is deleted on a table with datarows locking:
A. Rows on the page are moved up so the empty space is at the end of the page.
B. The space occupied by the deleted row is not reclaimed immediately.
C. The space occupied by the deleted row is filled with zeros.
D. The last row on the page is moved into the space created by the deleted row.
700-802 pdf Answer: B

22. What are some ways to reduce last data page lock contention for inserts? (Choose 3)
A. alter the table to use the Datarows locking scheme
B. alter the table to use the Datapages locking scheme
C. partition the table
D. create a clustered index on a random key
E. increase the server configuration for the number of locks
F. increase the server configuration for the deadlock checking period
Answer: ACD

23. The following query is executed frequently against the database. select a.au_fname, a.au_lname,
ad.street, ad.city, ad.state, ad.zip
from authors a, author_address ad where a.au_id = ad.au_id What database denormalization technique
could be used to improve the performance of this query?
A. Move the au_lname and au_fname columns to the author_address table.
B. Collapse the author_address and authors table into a single table.
C. Move the city, state, and zip columns to the authors table.
D. Create a view called mailing_address to eliminate the two table join from the query.
E. Add the redundant column au_id to the author_address table.
700-802 vce Answer: B
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Pass4itsure Cisco Exam 300-070 Dumps Blog Series 56-74

QUESTION 56
You want to know whether a packet filter is in front of 192.168.1.10. Pings to 192.168.1.10 don’t get answered. A basic nmap scan of 192.168.1.10 seems to hang without returning any information. What should you do next?
A. Use NetScan Tools Pro to conduct the scan
B. Run nmap XMAS scan against 192.168.1.10
C. Run NULL TCP hping2 against 192.168.1.10
D. The firewall is blocking all the scans to 192.168.1.10
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57
What does ICMP (type 11, code 0) denote?
A. Unknown Type
B. Time Exceeded
C. Source Quench
D. Destination Unreachable
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An ICMP Type 11, Code 0 means Time Exceeded [RFC792], Code 0 = Time to Live exceeded in Transit and Code 1 = Fragment Reassembly Time Exceeded.

QUESTION 58
An nmap command that includes the host specification of 202.176.56-57.* will scan _______ number of hosts.
A. 2
B. 256
C. 512
D. Over 10,000
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The hosts with IP address 202.176.56.0-255 & 202.176.56.0-255 will be scanned (256+256=512)

QUESTION 59
A specific site received 91 ICMP_ECHO packets within 90 minutes from 47 different sites. 77 of the ICMP_ECHO packets had an ICMP ID:39612 and Seq:57072.
13 of the ICMP_ECHO packets had an ICMP ID:0 and Seq:0. What can you infer from this information?
A. The packets were sent by a worm spoofing the IP addresses of 47 infected sites
B. ICMP ID and Seq numbers were most likely set by a tool and not by the operating system
C. All 77 packets came from the same LAN segment and hence had the same ICMP ID and Seq number
D. 13 packets were from an external network and probably behind a NAT, as they had an ICMP ID 0 and Seq 0
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 60
Which of the following commands runs snort in packet logger mode?
A. ./snort -dev -h ./log
B. ./snort -dev -l ./log
C. ./snort -dev -o ./log
D. ./snort -dev -p ./log
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Note: If you want to store the packages in binary mode for later analysis use ./snort -l ./log -b

QUESTION 61
Which of the following command line switch would you use for OS detection in Nmap?
A. -D
B. -O
C. -P
D. -X
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
OS DETECTION: -O: Enable OS detection (try 2nd generation w/fallback to 1st) -O2: Only use the new OS detection system (no fallback) -O1: Only use the old (1st generation) OS detection system –osscan-limit: Limit OS detection to promising targets –osscan-guess: Guess OS more aggressively

QUESTION 62
You ping a target IP to check if the host is up. You do not get a response. You suspect ICMP is blocked at the firewall. Next you use hping2 tool to ping the target host and you get a response. Why does the host respond to hping2 and not ping packet?
[ceh]# ping 10.2.3.4 PING 10.2.3.4 (10.2.3.4) from 10.2.3.80 : 56(84) bytes of data.
— 10.2.3.4 ping statistics — 3 packets transmitted, 0 packets received, 100% packet loss [ceh]# ./hping2 -c 4 -n -i 2 10.2.3.4 HPING 10.2.3.4 (eth0 10.2.3.4): NO FLAGS are set, 40 headers + 0 data bytes len=46 ip=10.2.3.4 flags=RA seq=0 ttl=128 id=54167 win=0 rtt=0.8 ms len=46 ip=10.2.3.4 flags=RA seq=1 ttl=128 id=54935 win=0 rtt=0.7 ms len=46 ip=10.2.3.4 flags=RA seq=2 ttl=128 id=55447 win=0 rtt=0.7 ms len=46 ip=10.2.3.4 flags=RA seq=3 ttl=128 id=55959 win=0 rtt=0.7 ms — 10.2.3.4 hping statistic — 4 packets tramitted, 4 packets received, 0% packet loss round-trip  min/avg/max = 0.7/0.8/0.8 ms
A. ping packets cannot bypass firewalls
B. you must use ping 10.2.3.4 switch
C. hping2 uses TCP instead of ICMP by default
D. hping2 uses stealth TCP packets to connect
300-070 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Default protocol is TCP, by default hping2 will send tcp headers to target host’s port 0 with a winsize of 64 without any tcp flag on. Often this is the best way to do an ‘hide ping’, useful when target is behind a firewall that drop ICMP. Moreover a tcp null-flag to port 0 has a good probability of not being logged.

QUESTION 63
You have initiated an active operating system fingerprinting attempt with nmap against a target system: [[email protected] NG]# /usr/local/bin/nmap -sT -O 10.0.0.1 Starting nmap 3.28 ( www.insecure.org/nmap/) at 2003-06-18 19:14 IDT Interesting ports on 10.0.0.1: (The 1628 ports scanned but not shown below are in state: closed) Port State Service
21/tcp filtered ftp
22/tcp filtered ssh
25/tcp open smtp
80/tcp open http
135/tcp open loc-srv

139/tcp open netbios-ssn
389/tcp open LDAP
443/tcp open https
465/tcp open smtps
1029/tcp open ms-lsa
1433/tcp open ms-sql-s
2301/tcp open compaqdiag
5555/tcp open freeciv
5800/tcp open vnc-http
5900/tcp open vnc
6000/tcp filtered X11
Remote operating system guess: Windows XP, Windows 2000, NT4 or 95/98/98SE Nmap run completed — 1 IP address (1 host up) scanned in 3.334 seconds Using its fingerprinting tests nmap is unable to distinguish between different groups of Microsoft based operating systems – Windows XP, Windows 2000, NT4 or 95/98/98SE. What operating system is the target host running based on the open ports shown above?
A. Windows XP
B. Windows 98 SE
C. Windows NT4 Server
D. Windows 2000 Server
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The system is reachable as an active directory domain controller (port 389, LDAP)

QUESTION 64
Study the log below and identify the scan type. tcpdump -vv host 192.168.1.10
17:34:45.802163 eth0 < 192.168.1.1 > victim: ip-proto-117 0 (ttl 48, id 36166)
17:34:45.802216 eth0 < 192.168.1.1 > victim: ip-proto-25 0 (ttl 48, id 33796)
17:34:45.802266 eth0 < 192.168.1.1 > victim: ip-proto-162 0 (ttl 48, id 47066)
17:34:46.111982 eth0 < 192.168.1.1 > victim: ip-proto-74 0 (ttl 48, id 35585)
17:34:46.112039 eth0 < 192.168.1.1 > victim: ip-proto-117 0 (ttl 48, id 32834)
17:34:46.112092 eth0 < 192.168.1.1 > victim: ip-proto-25 0 (ttl 48, id 26292)
17:34:46.112143 eth0 < 192.168.1.1 > victim: ip-proto-162 0 (ttl 48, id 51058)
tcpdump -vv -x host 192.168.1.10
17:35:06.731739 eth0 < 192.168.1.10 > victim: ip-proto-130 0 (ttl 59, id 42060) 4500 0014 a44c 0000 3b82 57b8 c0a8 010a c0a8 0109 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000
A. nmap -sR 192.168.1.10
B. nmap -sS 192.168.1.10
C. nmap -sV 192.168.1.10
D. nmap -sO -T 192.168.1.10
300-070 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 65
Why would an attacker want to perform a scan on port 137?
A. To discover proxy servers on a network
B. To disrupt the NetBIOS SMB service on the target host
C. To check for file and print sharing on Windows systems
D. To discover information about a target host using NBTSTAT
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Microsoft encapsulates netbios information within TCP/Ip using ports 135-139. It is trivial for an attacker to issue the following command: nbtstat -A (your Ip address) from their windows machine and collect information about your windows machine (if you are not blocking traffic to port 137 at your borders).

QUESTION 66
Steve scans the network for SNMP enabled devices. Which port number Steve should scan?
A. 69
B. 150
C. 161
D. 169
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The SNMP default port is 161. Port 69 is used for tftp, 150 is for SQL-NET and 169 is for SEND.

QUESTION 67
One of the ways to map a targeted network for live hosts is by sending an ICMP ECHO request to the broadcast or the network address. The request would be broadcasted to all hosts on the targeted network. The live hosts will send an ICMP ECHO Reply to the attacker source IP address. You send a ping request to the broadcast address 192.168.5.255. [[email protected]/root]# ping -b 192.168.5.255 WARNING: pinging broadcast address PING 192.168.5.255 (192.168.5.255) from 192.168.5.1 : 56(84) bytes of data. 64 bytes from 192.168.5.1: icmp_seq=0 ttl=255 time=4.1 ms 64 bytes from 192.168.5.5: icmp_seq=0 ttl=255 time=5.7 ms — There are 40 computers up and running on the target network. Only 13 hosts send a reply while others do not. Why?
A. You cannot ping a broadcast address. The above scenario is wrong.
B. You should send a ping request with this command ping 192.168.5.0-255
C. Linux machines will not generate an answer (ICMP ECHO Reply) to an ICMP ECHO request aimed at the broadcast address or at the network address.
D. Windows machines will not generate an answer (ICMP ECHO Reply) to an ICMP ECHO request aimed at the broadcast address or at the network address.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
As stated in the correct option, Microsoft Windows does not handle pings to a broadcast address correctly and therefore ignores them.

QUESTION 68
Which Type of scan sends a packets with no flags set ?
Select the Answer
A. Open Scan
B. Null Scan
C. Xmas Scan
D. Half-Open Scan
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The types of port connections supported are:

QUESTION 69
You want to know whether a packet filter is in front of 192.168.1.10. Pings to 192.168.1.10 don’t get answered. A basic nmap scan of 192.168.1.10 seems to hang
without returning any information. What should you do next?
A. Use NetScan Tools Pro to conduct the scan
B. Run nmap XMAS scan against 192.168.1.10
C. Run NULL TCP hping2 against 192.168.1.10
D. The firewall is blocking all the scans to 192.168.1.10
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 70
While doing fast scan using F option, which file is used to list the range of ports to scan by nmap?
A. services
B. nmap-services
C. protocols
D. ports
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Nmap uses the nmap-services file to provide additional port detail for almost every scanning method. Every time a port is referenced, it’s compared to an available description in this support file. If the nmap-services file isn’t available, nmap reverts to the /etc/services file applicable for the current operating system.

QUESTION 71
Bob is a Junior Administrator at ABC.com is searching the port number of POP3 in a file. The partial output of the file is look like: In which file he is searching?
A. services
B. protocols
C. hosts
D. resolve.conf
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The port numbers on which certain standard services are offered are defined in the RFC 1700 Assigned Numbers. The /etc/services file enables server and client
programs to convert service names to these numbers -ports. The list is kept on each host and it is stored in the file /etc/services.

QUESTION 72
Exhibit:
Please study the exhibit carefully.
Which Protocol maintains the communication on that way?
A. UDP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. ARP
E. RARP
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A TCP connection is always initiated with the 3-way handshake, which establishes and negotiates the actual connection over which data will be sent.

QUESTION 73
What are the four steps is used by nmap scanning?
A. DNS Lookup
B. ICMP Message
C. Ping
D. Reverse DNS lookup
E. TCP three way handshake
F. The Actual nmap scan
Correct Answer: ACDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Nmap performs four steps during a normal device scan. Some of these steps can be modified or disabled using options on the nmap command line.

QUESTION 74
Your are trying the scan a machine located at ABC company’s LAN named mail.abc.com. Actually that machine located behind the firewall. Which port is used by
nmap to send the TCP synchronize frame to on mail.abc.com?
A. 443
B. 80
C. 8080
D. 23

300-070 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

300-070 dumps

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LX0-101 dumps

Pass4itsure CompTIA Exam LX0-101 Dumps Blog Series:

QUESTION NO: 6
An administrator has just added a CD-ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to a system and added it to the administrator’s fstab. Typically the administrator can use which of the following commands to mount media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom?
A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
B. mount /dev/cdrom
C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
D. mount /mnt/cdrom
E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom}
LX0-101 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
An administrator wishes to kill a process with a PID of 123. Which of the following commands will allow the process to “clean up” before exiting?
A. kill -1 123
B. kill -9 123
C. kill -15 123
D. kill -17 123
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8 CORRECT TEXT
What command with all options and/or parameters will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of program apache2?
LX0-101 dumps Answer: KILLALL-SSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL SIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-USR1APACHE2
QUESTION NO: 9
All of the following commands will update the Modify timestamp on the file /tmp/myfile.txt EXCEPT:
A. file /tmp/myfile.txt
B. echo “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
C. sed -ie “s/1/2/” /tmp/myfile.txt
D. echo -n “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
E. touch /tmp/myfile.txt
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
In the vi editor, which of the following commands will delete the current line at the cursor and the 16 lines following it (17 lines total)?
A. 17d
B. 17dd
C. 17x
D. d17d
E. 16d
LX0-101 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Mitigating the risk and impact of a disaster or business interruption usually takes priority over transference of risk to a third party such as an insurer. True or false?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Mitigating the risk and impact of a disaster or business interruption usually takes priority over transferring risk to a third party such as an insurer.
QUESTION 12
Off-site data storage should be kept synchronized when preparing for recovery of time
sensitive data such as that resulting from which of the following? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Financial reporting
B. Sales reporting
C. Inventory reporting
D. Transaction processing
LX0-101 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Off-site data storage should be kept synchronized when preparing for the recovery of timesensitive data such as that resulting from transaction processing.
QUESTION 13
What is an acceptable recovery mechanism for extremely time-sensitive transaction
processing?
A. Off-site remote journaling
B. Electronic vaulting
C. Shadow file processing
D. Storage area network
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Shadow file processing can be implemented as a recovery mechanism for
extremely time-sensitive transaction processing.
QUESTION 14
Off-site data backup and storage should be geographically separated so as to ________________ (fill in the blank) the risk of a widespread physical disaster
such as a hurricane or earthquake.
A. Accept
B. Eliminate
C. Transfer
D. Mitigate
LX0-101 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Off-site data backup and storage should be geographically separated, to mitigate the risk
of a widespread physical disaster such as a hurricane or an earthquake.
QUESTION 15
Why is a clause for requiring source code escrow in an application vendor agreement important?
A. To segregate systems development and live environments
B. To protect the organization from copyright disputes
C. To ensure that sufficient code is available when needed
D. To ensure that the source code remains available even if the application vendor goes out of business
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A clause for requiring source code escrow in an application vendor agreement is
important to ensure that the source code remains available even if the application
vendor goes out of business.
QUESTION 16
What uses questionnaires to lead the user through a series of choices to reach a conclusion? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Logic trees
B. Decision trees
C. Decision algorithms

D. Logic algorithms
LX0-101 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Decision trees use questionnaires to lead the user through a series of choices to
reach a conclusion.
QUESTION 17
What protects an application purchaser’s ability to fix or change an application in case the
application vendor goes out of business?
A. Assigning copyright to the organization
B. Program back doors
C. Source code escrow
D. Internal programming expertise
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Source code escrow protects an application purchaser’s ability to fix or change an
application in case the application vendor goes out of business.
QUESTION 18
Who is ultimately responsible for providing requirement specifications to the software
development team?
A. The project sponsor
B. The project members
C. The project leader
D. The project steering committee
LX0-101 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project sponsor is ultimately responsible for providing requirement specifications to
the software-development team.
QUESTION 19
What should regression testing use to obtain accurate conclusions regarding the
effects of changes or corrections to a program, and ensuring that those changes and
corrections have not introduced new errors?
A. Contrived data
B. Independently created data

C. Live data
D. Data from previous tests
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Regression testing should use data from previous tests to obtain accurate conclusions
regarding the effects of changes or corrections to a program, and ensuring that
those changes and corrections have not introduced new errors.
QUESTION 20
An IS auditor should carefully review the functional requirements in a systems
development project to ensure that the project is designed to:
A. Meet business objectives
B. Enforce data security
C. Be culturally feasible
D. Be financially feasible
LX0-101 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
An IS auditor should carefully review the functional requirements in a systems
development project to ensure that the project is designed to meet business objectives.
QUESTION 21
Which of the following processes are performed during the design phase of the
systemsdevelopment life cycle (SDLC) model?
A. Develop test plans.
B. Baseline procedures to prevent scope creep.
C. Define the need that requires resolution, and map to the major requirements of the solution.
D. Program and test the new system. The tests verify and validate what has been developed.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Procedures to prevent scope creep are baselined in the design phase of the
systems-development life cycle (SDLC) model.
QUESTION 22
When should application controls be considered within the system-development process?
A. After application unit testing
B. After application module testing

C. After applications systems testing
D. As early as possible, even in the development of the project’s functional specifications
LX0-101 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Application controls should be considered as early as possible in the system development process, even in the development of the project’s functional specifications.
QUESTION 23
What is used to develop strategically important systems faster, reduce development costs,
and still maintain high quality? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Rapid application development (RAD)
B. GANTT
C. PERT
D. Decision trees
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Rapid application development (RAD) is used to develop strategically important systems
faster, reduce development costs, and still maintain high quality.
QUESTION 24
Test and development environments should be separated. True or false?
A. True
B. False
LX0-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Test and development environments should be separated, to control the stability of the
test environment.
QUESTION 25
What kind of testing should programmers perform following any changes to an
application or system?
A. Unit, module, and full regression testing
B. Module testing
C. Unit testing
D. Regression testing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 26
Which of the following are included in Technical Controls? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Identification and authentication methods
B. Configuration of the infrastructure
C. Password and resource management
D. Implementing and maintaining access control mechanisms
E. Security devices
F. Conducting security-awareness training
LX0-101 pdf Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Explanation:
Technical Controls are also known as Logical Controls. These controls include the following: Implementing and maintaining access control mechanisms Password and resource management Identification and authentication methods Security devices Configuration of the infrastructure Answer: F is incorrect. It is a part of Administrative Controls.
QUESTION NO: 27
What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
D. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
Answer: C
Explanation:
Software Assurance Acquisition process defines the level of confidence that
software is free from vulnerabilities. It is designed into the software or accidentally inserted at anytime during its lifecycle, and the software works in a planned manner. According to the U.S. Department of Defense and Department of Homeland Security Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group, the Software Assurance Acquisition process contains the following phases:
1.Planning 2.Contracting 3.Monitoring and acceptance 4.Follow-on
QUESTION NO: 28
Companies use some special marks to distinguish their products from those of other companies. These marks can include words, letters, numbers, drawings, etc. Which of the following terms describes these special marks?
A. Business mark
B. Trademark
C. Sales mark
D. Product mark
LX0-101 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
A trademark is a mark that is used by a company to distinguish its products from those of other companies. There are various ways a company uses its trademark to distinguish its products from others. It can use words, letters, numbers, drawings, pictures, and so on, in its trademark. Answer: D, A, and C are incorrect. There is no such mark as product mark, business mark, or sales mark.
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following features of SIEM products is used in analysis for identifying potential problems and reviewing all available data that are associated with the problems?
A. Security knowledge base
B. Graphical user interface
C. Asset information storage and correlation
D. Incident tracking and reporting
Answer: B
Explanation:
SIEM product has a graphical user interface (GUI) which is used in analysis for identifying potential problems and reviewing all available data that are associated with the problems. A graphical user interface (GUI) is a type of user interface that allows people to interact with programs in more ways than typing commands on computers. The term came into existence because the first interactive user interfaces to computers were not graphical; they were text- and keyboard oriented and usually consisted of commands a user had to remember and computer responses that were infamously brief. A GUI offers graphical icons, and visual indicators, as opposed to text-based interfaces, typed command labels or text navigation to fully represent the information and actions available to a user. The actions are usually performed through direct manipulation of the graphical elements.
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following is the process of finding weaknesses in cryptographic algorithms and obtaining the plaintext or key from the ciphertext?
A. Cryptographer
B. Cryptography
C. Kerberos
D. Cryptanalysis
LX0-101 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
Cryptanalysis is the process of analyzing cipher text and finding weaknesses in cryptographic algorithms. These weaknesses can be used to decipher the cipher text without knowing the secret key. Answer: C is incorrect. Kerberos is an industry standard authentication protocol used to verify user or host identity. Kerberos v5 authentication protocol is the default authentication service for Windows 2000. It is integrated into the administrative and security model, and provides secure communication between Windows 2000 Server domains and clients.
Answer: A is incorrect. A cryptographer is a person who is involved in cryptography.
Answer: B is incorrect. Cryptography is a branch of computer science and mathematics. It is used for protecting information by encoding it into an unreadable format known as cipher text.

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1Y0-A19 dumps

Pass4itsure Citrix Exam 1Y0-A19 Dumps Blog Series:

QUESTION 13
How can an administrator remotely access a Controller in a XenDesktop environment in order to assign a dedicated desktop to a new user?
A. Install the Controller software on the server being used to access the Controller and point it to the appropriate Controller.
B. Install Desktop Studio on the server being used to access the Controller and point Desktop Studio to the appropriate Controller.
C. Install Web Interface on the server being used to access the Controller and log on to the appropriate Controller through Web Interface.
D. Install Desktop Director on the server being used to access the Controller and use Desktop Director to log on to the appropriate Controller.
1Y0-A19 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which HDX MediaStream policy setting must an administrator configure to adjust the quality of Flash content rendered on session hosts?
A. Flash (client-side)
B. Flash (server-side)
C. Multimedia Acceleration
D. Multimedia Acceleration buffer size
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which user action is prevented by enabling the client clipboard redirection policy?
A. Uploading images from the Internet to a user session
B. Downloading images from the server to a user session
C. Copying and pasting between applications within user sessions
D. Copying and pasting between user sessions and the local machine
1Y0-A19 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
An administrator must configure the Web Interface in order to 3II0W users to access applications, virtual desktops and online content by clicking icons on their desktops or start menus. Which Web Interface site must the administrator configure to meet the requirements of this environment?
A. XenAppWeb
B. XenApp Services
C. XenDesktop Web
D. Desktop Appliance
E. XenDesktop Services
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Scenario: An administrator needs to ensure that end users can only access their client’s default printer during sessions. The administrator set the Auto-create client printers policy setting to ‘Auto-create the client’s default printer only’. When additional policy setting must the administrator ensure is set to ‘Allowed’?
A. Default printer
B. Client printer redirection
C. Direct connections to print servers
D. Retained and restored client printers
1Y0-A19 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Scenario: An administrator created a catalog for virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) using Provisioning services. The catalog contains 500 desktop, and a desktop group contains 200 desktops from this catalog. The Power Time Scheme for this desktop group is set to the default Fifty desk any desktops are in the use. How many desktops are in the ‘off state?
A. 15
B. 75
C. 135
D. 150
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
An administrator is configuring a master image and knows that the end users accessing it will need to use WinZip. Which delivery mechanism should the administrator use to deliver WinZip to the users?
A. Stream WinZip to a XenApp server.
B. Install WinZip on the XenClient image.
C. Host WnZip in a XenApp environment.
D. Install WinZip on the master image locally.
1Y0-A19 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
An administrator needs to ensure that when user desktops are not in use at busy times of the day, they are added back into the idle pool. How should the administrator accomplish this task?
A. Set ‘When logged off’ to ten minutes/shutdown under ‘During peak hour’.
B. Set ‘When disconnected’ to five minutes/suspend under ‘During peak hours’.
C. Set ‘When logged off’ to twenty minutes/shutdown under ‘During off-peak hours’.
D. Set ‘When disconnected’ to fifteen minutes/suspend under ‘During off-peak hours’.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which action must an administrator take before implementing HDX MediaStream Flash Redirection?
A. Install the Flash Player on the server.
B. Stream the Flash Player to the server.
C. Install the Flash Player on the user device.
D. Stream the Flash Player to the user device.
1Y0-A19 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which set of steps must be completed to configure a target device to start up from a vDisk?
A. Add target device to a site, assign a vDisk to the device and set device to start up from vDisk.
B. Add target device to a collection, assign a vDisk to the device and set device to start up from vDisk.
C. Add target device to a site, assign a vDisk to the device and configure the vDisk to use private image access mode.
D. Add target device to a collection, assign a vDisk to the device and configure the vDisk to use standard image access mode.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Scenario: All users in the Sales group must be able to save documents created on their virtual desktops to USB devices connected to their local desktops. Some users in the Sales group also belong to the Remote Users group; however, the Remote Users group must not be able to save documents to a local USB device. An administrator created the Sales USB policy, which allows Client USB device redirection for the Sales group, and the Remote Users USB policy, which prohibits Client USB device redirection for the Remote Users group. Which additional step must the administrator take to meet the needs of this scenario?
A. Set the Remote Users USB policy to ‘Disable’.
B. Edit the USB device list on the endpoint device.
C. Ensure that the Sales USB policy has highest priority.
D. Add Client USB device redirection rules to the Sales USB policy.
1Y0-A19 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Scenario: An administrator needs to create a catalog. Provisioning services-based virtual machines will be imported into the catalog. Which machine type must the administrator select when creating the catalog?
A. Pooled
B. Existing
C. Streamed
D. Dedicated
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Scenario: The design for an environment requires that Web Interface is load balanced across multiple servers. An administrator has been asked to figure one master site and to distribute the configuration of that site throughout the Web Interface implementation. Which two steps must the administrator take in order to share the master site’s configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Edit the boot strap configuration file of the other sites to point to the IP address of the master site.
B. Set up file sharing permission to allow access over the network to the configuration folder of the master site
C. Replace the configuration files of the other sites with the master site’s configuration file to ensure they point to the same configuration.
D. Change the setting of the configuration location parameter of the other sites to point to the absolute network path of the master site’s configuration.
1Y0-A19 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 26
Scenario: An administrator configured the Client fixed drives policy setting to allow all end users to access or save files to fixed drives on their devices. Users are still unable to map client fixed drives, and they cannot access the fixed drives manually. Users are unable to map and access fixed drives on their user devices because _____ and _____. (Choose the two correct phases to complete the sentence.)
A. Asynchronous writes are NOT enabled
B. Client drive letters are NOT being preserved
C. The Client drive redirection policy setting is NOT enabled
D. The Auto connect client drives policy setting in NOT enabled
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 27
What are intrusion-detection systems (IDS) primarily used for?
A. To identify AND prevent intrusion attempts to a network
B. To prevent intrusion attempts to a network
C. Forensic incident response
D. To identify intrusion attempts to a network
1Y0-A19 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Intrusion-detection systems (IDS) are used to identify intrusion attempts on a network.
QUESTION 28
Rather than simply reviewing the adequacy of access control, appropriateness of access
policies, and effectiveness of safeguards and procedures, the IS auditor is more concerned with effectiveness and utilization of assets. True or false?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Instead of simply reviewing the effectiveness and utilization of assets, an IS auditor is
more concerned with adequate access control, appropriate access policies, and effectiveness of safeguards and procedures.
QUESTION 29
If a programmer has update access to a live system, IS auditors are more concerned with
the programmer’s ability to initiate or modify transactions and the ability to access production than with the programmer’s ability to authorize transactions. True or false?
A. True
B. False
1Y0-A19 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If a programmer has update access to a live system, IS auditors are more concerned with
the programmer’s ability to initiate or modify transactions and the ability to access
production than with the programmer’s ability to authorize transactions.
QUESTION 30
Organizations should use off-site storage facilities to maintain _________________ (fill
in the blank) of current and critical information within backup files. Choose the BEST answer.
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Redundancy
D. Concurrency
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Redundancy is the best answer because it provides both integrity and availability. Organizations should use off-site storage facilities to maintain redundancy of current and
critical information within backup files.
QUESTION 31
The purpose of business continuity planning and disaster-recovery planning is to:
A. Transfer the risk and impact of a business interruption or disaster
B. Mitigate, or reduce, the risk and impact of a business interruption or disaster
C. Accept the risk and impact of a business
D. Eliminate the risk and impact of a business interruption or disaster
1Y0-A19 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The primary purpose of business continuity planning and disaster-recovery planning is to mitigate, or reduce, the risk and impact of a business interruption or disaster. Total elimination of risk is impossible.
QUESTION 32
If a database is restored from information backed up before the last system image, which
of the following is recommended?
A. The system should be restarted after the last transaction.
B. The system should be restarted before the last transaction.
C. The system should be restarted at the first transaction.
D. The system should be restarted on the last transaction.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If a database is restored from information backed up before the last system image, the system should be restarted before the last transaction because the final transaction must be reprocessed.
QUESTION 33
An off-site processing facility should be easily identifiable externally because easy
identification helps ensure smoother recovery. True or false?
A. True
B. False
1Y0-A19 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
An off-site processing facility should not be easily identifiable externally because
easy identification would create an additional vulnerability for sabotage.
QUESTION 34
Which of the following is the dominating objective of BCP and DRP?
A. To protect human life
B. To mitigate the risk and impact of a business interruption
C. To eliminate the risk and impact of a business interruption
D. To transfer the risk and impact of a business interruption
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Although the primary business objective of BCP and DRP is to mitigate the risk and
impact of a business interruption, the dominating objective remains the protection of human life.

QUESTION 35
How can minimizing single points of failure or vulnerabilities of a common disaster best
be controlled?
A. By implementing redundant systems and applications onsite
B. By geographically dispersing resources
C. By retaining onsite data backup in fireproof vaults
D. By preparing BCP and DRP documents for commonly identified disasters
1Y0-A19 exam Correct Answer: B

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Pass4itsure Cisco Exam 300-209 Dumps Blog Series:

QUESTION 169
To change the title panel on the logon page of the Cisco IOS WebVPN portal, which file must you configure?
A. Cisco IOS WebVPN customization template
B. Cisco IOS WebVPN customization general
C. web-access-hlp.inc
D. app-access-hlp.inc
300-209 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 170
After completing a site-to-site VPN setup between two routers, application performance over the tunnel is slow. You issue the show crypto ipsec sa command and see the following output. What does this output suggest? interfacE. Tunnel100 Crypto map tag: Tunnel100-head-0, local addr 10.10.10.10 protected vrF. (none) local ident (addr/mask/prot/port): (10.10.10.10/255.255.255.255/47/0) remote ident (addr/mask/prot/port): (10.20.20.20/255.255.255.255/47/0)  current_peer 209.165.200.230 port 500 PERMIT, flags={origin_is_acl,}
#pkts encaps: 34836, #pkts encrypt: 34836, #pkts digest: 34836
#pkts decaps: 26922, #pkts decrypt: 19211, #pkts verify: 19211
#pkts compresseD. 0, #pkts decompresseD. 0
#pkts not compresseD. 0, #pkts compr. faileD. 0
#pkts not decompresseD. 0, #pkts decompress faileD. 0
#send errors 0, #recv errors 0
A. The VPN has established and is functioning normally.
B. There is an asymmetric routing issue.
C. The remote peer is not receiving encrypted traffic.
D. The remote peer is not able to decrypt traffic.
E. Packet corruption is occurring on the path between the two peers.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
An internet-based VPN solution is being considered to replace an existing private WAN connecting remote offices. A multimedia application is used that relies on multicast for communication. Which two VPN solutions meet the application’s network requirement? (Choose two.)
A. FlexVPN
B. DMVPN
C. Group Encrypted Transport VPN
D. Crypto-map based Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs
E. AnyConnect VPN
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 172
Which three types of web resources or protocols are enabled by default on the Cisco ASA Clientless SSL VPN portal? (Choose three.)
A. HTTP
B. VNC
C. CIFS
D. RDP
E. HTTPS
F. ICA (Citrix)
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 173
Which command simplifies the task of converting an SSL VPN to an IKEv2 VPN on a Cisco ASA appliance that has an invalid IKEv2 configuration?
A. migrate remote-access ssl overwrite
B. migrate remote-access ikev2
C. migrate l2l
D. migrate remote-access ssl
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Below is a reference for this question:
If your IKEv1, or even SSL, configuration already exists, the ASA makes the migration process simple. On the command line, enter the migrate command: migrate {l2l | remote-access {ikev2 | ssl} | overwrite} Things of note: Keyword definitions: l2l – This converts current IKEv1 l2l tunnels to IKEv2. remote access – This converts the remote access configuration. You can convert either the IKEv1 or the SSL tunnel groups to IKEv2.
overwrite – If you have a IKEv2 configuration that you wish to overwrite, then this keyword converts the current IKEv1 configuration and removes the superfluous IKEv2 configuration.
QUESTION 174
300-209 dumps

300-209 dumps

300-209 dumps

If the IKEv2 tunnel were to establish successfully, which encryption algorithm would be used to encrypt traffic?
A. DES
B. 3DES
C. AES
D. AES192
E. AES256
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Both ASA’s are configured to support AES 256, so during the IPSec negotiation they will use the strongest algorithm that is supported by each peer.
QUESTION 175
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

Which VPN solution does this configuration represent?
A. Cisco AnyConnect
B. IPsec
C. L2TP
D. SSL VPN
300-209 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Which three parameters are specified in the isakmp (IKEv1) policy? (Choose three.)
A. the hashing algorithm
B. the authentication method
C. the lifetime
D. the session key
E. the transform-set
F. the peer
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
QUESTION 177
What is a common vulnerability, allowing denial-of-service attacks?
A. Assigning access to users according to the principle of least privilege
B. Lack of employee awareness of organizational security policies
C. Improperly configured routers and router access lists
D. Configuring firewall access rules
300-209 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Improperly configured routers and router access lists are a common vulnerability for  denial-of-service attacks.
QUESTION 178
What are trojan horse programs? Choose the BEST answer.
A. A common form of internal attack
B. Malicious programs that require the aid of a carrier program such as email
C. Malicious programs that can run independently and can propagate without the aid of a carrier program such as email
D. A common form of Internet attack
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Trojan horse programs are a common form of Internet attack.
QUESTION 179
What is/are used to measure and ensure proper network capacity management and availability of services? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Network performance-monitoring tools
B. Network component redundancy
C. Syslog reporting
D. IT strategic planning
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Network performance-monitoring tools are used to measure and ensure proper network capacity management and availability of services.
QUESTION 180
What can be used to gather evidence of network attacks?
A. Access control lists (ACL)
B. Intrusion-detection systems (IDS)
C. Syslog reporting
D. Antivirus programs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Intrusion-detection systems (IDS) are used to gather evidence of network attacks.
QUESTION 181
Which of the following is a passive attack method used by intruders to determine

potential network vulnerabilities?
A. Traffic analysis
B. SYN flood
C. Denial of service (DoS)
D. Distributed denial of service (DoS)
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Traffic analysis is a passive attack method used by intruders to determine potential
network vulnerabilities. All others are active attacks.
QUESTION 182
Which of the following fire-suppression methods is considered to be the most environmentally friendly?
A. Halon gas
B. Deluge sprinklers
C. Dry-pipe sprinklers
D. Wet-pipe sprinklers
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Although many methods of fire suppression exist, dry-pipe sprinklers are considered to
be the most environmentally friendly.
QUESTION 183
What is a callback system?
A. It is a remote-access system whereby the remote-access server immediately calls the user back at a predetermined number if the dial-in connection fails.
B. It is a remote-access system whereby the user’s application automatically redials the remoteaccess server if the initial connection attempt fails.
C. It is a remote-access control whereby the user initially connects to the network systems via dial-up access, only to have the initial connection terminated by the server, which then subsequently dials the user back at a predetermined number stored in the server’s configuration database.
D. It is a remote-access control whereby the user initially connects to the network systems via dial-up access, only to have the initial connection terminated by the server, which then subsequently allows the user to call back at an approved number for a limited period of time.
300-209 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A callback system is a remote-access control whereby the user initially connects to the
network systems via dial-up access, only to have the initial connection terminated by the
server, which then subsequently dials the user back at a predetermined number
 stored in the server’s configuration database.
QUESTION 184
What type of fire-suppression system suppresses fire via water that is released from a main valve to be delivered via a system of dry pipes installed throughout the facilities?
A. A dry-pipe sprinkler system
B. A deluge sprinkler system
C. A wet-pipe system
D. A halon sprinkler system
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A dry-pipe sprinkler system suppresses fire via water that is released from a main valve
to be delivered via a system of dry pipes installed throughout the facilities.
QUESTION 185
Digital signatures require the sender to “sign” the data by encrypting the data with the sender’s public key, to then be decrypted by the recipient using the recipient’s private key. True or false?
A. False
B. True
300-209 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Digital signatures require the sender to “sign” the data by encrypting the data with the
sender’s private key, to then be decrypted by the recipient using the sender’s public key.
QUESTION 186
Which of the following provides the BEST single-factor authentication?
A. Biometrics
B. Password
C. Token
D. PIN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Although biometrics provides only single-factor authentication, many consider it to be an excellent method for user authentication.
QUESTION 187
What is used to provide authentication of the website and can also be used to successfully
authenticate keys used for data encryption?
A. An organizational certificate
B. A user certificate
C. A website certificate
D. Authenticode
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A website certificate is used to provide authentication of the website and can also be used
to successfully authenticate keys used for data encryption.
QUESTION 188
What determines the strength of a secret key within a symmetric key cryptosystem?
A. A combination of key length, degree of permutation, and the complexity of the data- encryption algorithm that uses the key
B. A combination of key length, initial input vectors, and the complexity of the data- encryption algorithm that uses the key
C. A combination of key length and the complexity of the data-encryption algorithm that uses the key
D. Initial input vectors and the complexity of the data-encryption algorithm that uses the key
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The strength of a secret key within a symmetric key cryptosystem is determined by a
combination of key length, initial input vectors, and the complexity of the data encryption algorithm that uses the key.
QUESTION 189
What process is used to validate a subject’s identity?
A. Identification
B. Nonrepudiation
C. Authorization
D. Authentication
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Authentication is used to validate a subject’s identity.
QUESTION 190
What is often assured through table link verification and reference checks?
A. Database integrity
B. Database synchronization
C. Database normalcy
D. Database accuracy
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Database integrity is most often ensured through table link verification and reference checks.
QUESTION 191
Which of the following should an IS auditor review to determine user permissions that
have been granted for a particular resource? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Systems logs
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Application logs
D. Error logs
300-209 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
IS auditors should review access-control lists (ACL) to determine user permissions that have been granted for a particular resource.
QUESTION 192
What should IS auditors always check when auditing password files?
A. That deleting password files is protected
B. That password files are encrypted
C. That password files are not accessible over the network
D. That password files are archived
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
IS auditors should always check to ensure that password files are encrypted.
QUESTION 193
Using the OSI reference model, what layer(s) is/are used to encrypt data?
A. Transport layer
B. Session layer

C. Session and transport layers
D. Data link layer
300-209 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
User applications often encrypt and encapsulate data using protocols within the OSI
session layer or farther down in the transport layer.
QUESTION 194
When should systems administrators first assess the impact of applications or systems patches?
A. Within five business days following installation
B. Prior to installation
C. No sooner than five business days following installation
D. Immediately following installation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Systems administrators should always assess the impact of patches before installation.
QUESTION 195
Which of the following is the most fundamental step in preventing virus attacks?
A. Adopting and communicating a comprehensive antivirus policy
B. Implementing antivirus protection software on users’ desktop computers
C. Implementing antivirus content checking at all network-to-Internet gateways
D. Inoculating systems with antivirus code
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Adopting and communicating a comprehensive antivirus policy is the most fundamental step in preventing virus attacks. All other antivirus prevention efforts rely upon decisions
established and communicated via policy.

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600-509 dumps
Pass4itsure Cisco Exam 600-509 Dumps Blog Series:
QUESTION 1
You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
600-509 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives?
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
600-509 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring & diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be  rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
600-509 pdf 
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 6
A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced?
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
600-509 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 9
As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed?
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
600-509 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2 credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
The introduction of reviews and inspections has often failed as a process improvement action. Identify the THREE most important measures that should be taken to reduce the risk that this test process improvement will fail. 2 Credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
A. Process ownership and experienced moderators who drive the inspection process.
B. Management support
C. Training of those involved
D. The availability of stands and processes
E. Usage of a more traditional software development lifecycle
F. Alignment with software process improvement
G. Using a reference model, e.g. TMMi

600-509 dumps Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12
IEEE 1028 also defines “management review” as a type of review. What is the main purpose of a management review? 1 credit
A. Align technical concepts during the design phase
B. Establish a common understanding of requirements
C. Provide independent evaluation of compliance to processes, regulations, standards etc.
D. To monitor progress, assess the status of a project, and make decisions about future actions
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase?
A. A requirements review meeting
B. A business analyst eliciting requirements
C. Performing acceptance tests against requirements
D. A test report showing requirements coverage
600-509 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Select THREE issues from the options provided that should at least be raised. 1 credit
A. Has there been sufficient comparison of tools?
B. What are the problems we are trying to address?
C. Do we have a set of tool requirements to validate the tool against?
D. How will the implementation be organized?
E. Which project will be selected to perform the tool pilot?
F. Is customized training available?
G. How will the change process be managed?
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 15
Which of the following would you least expect to form part of the analysis of initial tool costs? 1 credit
A. Integration with other tools
B. Learning time required to use the new tool
C. Tool portability
D. Evaluation of suitable tools
600-509 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year? 2 credits
i. We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.
ii. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.
iii. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.
iv. The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model? 1 credit
A. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is completed.
B. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
C. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
D. All document reviews involve the development team.
600-509 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which of the following would you expect to see in the master test plan? 1 credit
A. A description of how the test cases are cross-referenced to requirements in the test management tool.
B. A detailed identification of the resources that will carry out structural testing in the first iteration.
C. The test approach that will be applied at system integration testing.
D. A list of the names of the testers who will carry out the performance testing for the final iteration.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
To remove computers from ePO using the Active Directory Synchronization task, it is required that the account has access to the:
A. Deleted computers
B. Deleted Objects container
C. Organizational Unit
D. Active Directory.
600-509 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What option can be configured in the On-Access General Policy that is not an option in the local VirusScan console?
A. Boot sectors
B. Floppy during shutdown
C. Enable on-access scanning at system startup
D. Enable on-access scanning when the policy is enforced
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
To ensure that a Rogue System Detection Sensor is not installed on a managed system, what action needs to be performed?
A. Add the system to the Exception List
B. Add the system to the Blacklist
C. Add the system as Ignored
D. Add the system as Managed
600-509 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
When running a “Run Tag Criteria” server task and the box for “Reset manually tagged and excluded systems” box is checked, this would:
A. Include both systems that match and don’t match.
B. Remove the tag on systems that do match the criteria.
C. Add the tag on systems that don’t match the criteria.
D. Remove the tag on systems that don’t match the criteria.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Query results are displayed within ePO in what form? (Choose two)
A. PDF
B. Charts
C. XML
D. Tables
E. TXT
600-509 vce 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 24
Which of the following options are available when right clicking a file and selecting “Scan for threats”? (Choose two)
A. Clean
B. Delete
C. Continue
D. Prompt for action
E. Continue scanning
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
When configuring Product Deployment Client Tasks, the “Enable randomization” setting should be activated when managed client nodes exceed.
A. 100
B. 500
C. 750
D. 1000
600-509 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Which of the following should be the primary consideration when deploying Agent Handlers?
A. Database increasing in size
B. Log files increasing in size
C. Memory and resource allocation
D. High speed and low latency connection
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
When backing up an ePO server, which of the following security keys is required to restore agent server communication?
A. Local Master Repository Communication
B. Agent Server Secure Communication
C. Legacy Agent Server Communication
D. McAfee SIA Repository Communication
600-509 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the correct order for creating a query?
A. Configure Chart, choose Columns, select Result Type, apply Filter
B. Select Result Type, choose Columns, configure Chart, apply Filter
C. Configure Chart, select Result Type, choose Columns, apply Filter
D. Select Result Type, configure Chart, choose Columns, apply Filter
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Agent Handlers are used to:
A. Replace distributed repositories

B. Ensure agents receive policies, tasks, and product updates.
C. Fix a broken network segment.
D. Identify Rogue Systems on the network.
600-509 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
When a policy is deleted, all systems for which it is currently applied to will inherit which policy?
A. McAfee Default
B. Parent Group
C. My Default
D. Global Root
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Which of the following server services is responsible for communication with the McAfee Agent?
A. Apache
B. Tomcat
C. SQL
D. Event Parser
600-509 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which of the following is a core architecture component of ePO?
A. Internet Explorer
B. Event Parser
C. Active Directory
D. Agent Handler
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Why would a managed system appear in the Lost & Found group?
A. No matching criteria were found
B. Matched sorting criteria were found
C. Inactive Agent
D. Rogue Agent
600-509 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which areas of the console allow the resetting of inheritance? (Choose three)
A. Assigned Policies
B. Policy Catalog
C. Group Details
D. Systems
E. Client Tasks
Correct Answer: ABE

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300-210 dumps

Pass4itsure Cisco Exam 300-210 Dumps Blog Series:

QUESTION NO: 1
A purchaser places a purchase order with XYZ Company close to the need date. The MOST appropriate course of action for the purchaser to take would be to
A. tell the supplier to call 3 days prior to the promised shipping date
B. tell the receiving clerk to call the supplier if the materials are not received on the promised date
C. establish a follow-up file to call the supplier one week before the promised ship date
D. call the supplier the day the shipment is promised
300-210 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following contracts rewards performance above a set level by adding a percentage to price?
A. Bilateral
B. Blanket
C. Futures
D. Incentive
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
To ensure that a supplier will meet engineering specifications for a product, a buyer should insist on which of the following contract provisions?
A. An arbitration clause
B. The indexing of price to inspection costs
C. Discounts based on total purchases over a period of time
D. An acceptance test plan
300-210 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
Purchasing should clearly understand the intended use of an item in order to determine if the description given in the purchase request is adequate and accurate. If there is any question, purchasing management should
A. solicit a better description from the user
B. revise the description to conform to market terminology
C. substitute a comparable item
D. refuse to process the request
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following is the MOST serious problem with the use of supplier inputs into
specification and work statement development?
A. The potential for a supplier to structure the specifications in a manner that prevents competition
B. The inability of a supplier to comply with the time constraint imposed by the buyer
C. A lack of technical or technological expertise among supplier personnel
D. The potential for the supplier to ignore quality considerations even when requested by the buyer
300-210 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
The type of evaluation required to determine supplier capability may vary depending on which of the following? I. Complexity of the purchase to be made II. Purchaser’s knowledge of the firms being considered
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 7
When attempting to source and qualify potential bidders for a project requiring a highly technical scope of work, which of the following factors will be the LEAST important consideration?
A. Financial stability
B. Location
C. References
D. Previous experience
300-210 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
A using department requests that a buyer purchase a specific brand-name product. In this situation, the buyer should FIRST do which of the following?
A. Attempt to negotiate a lower price with the supplier of the brand-name product
B. Search for competitive suppliers that furnish similar products
C. Attempt to persuade the user to furnish performance specifications
D. Appeal the request to higher purchasing management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be required on a purchase requisition?
A. The account to be charged
B. An authorized signature
C. The date the materials are required
D. The name of the freight carrier
300-210 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following is NOT a solution to the “classic” small order problem?
A. The electronic transmission of orders
B. Competitive bidding
C. Blanket orders
D. Purchase order drafts
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
The initial stage of a cost analysis involves
A. comparing previous prices
B. obtaining a cost breakdown
C. examining financial statements
D. comparing historical costs
300-210 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following costs is specifically EXCLUDED from the process of cost analysis?
A. Indirect
B. Overhead
C. Semivariable
D. Sunk
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
When establishing procurement plans for the purchase of products or services, which of the following is of LEAST consideration in the classification of needs?
A. Monetary value
B. Specifications
C. Repetitive or non-repetitive need
D. Strategic or operational need
300-210 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a driver of purchases of standard materials that are common and in repetitive use?
A. Bill of material
B. Commitment of funds
C. Production plan
D. Internal customer order
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
Specifications refer to all of the following EXCEPT
A. purchase descriptions
B. quality requirements
C. product descriptions
D. purchase conditions
300-210 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
To source a part presently made in-house, which of the following actions would be LEAST appropriate?
A. Soliciting manufacturing’s approval to ensure future cooperation
B. Obtaining accurate specifications for the item to be purchased
C. Developing a good understanding of present true internal costs
D. Developing a list of potential sources from which to solicit
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
In the second step of two-step bidding, prices are requested from
A. all suppliers submitting acceptable technical proposals in the first step
B. all suppliers qualified to submit proposals in the first step
C. all suppliers submitting proposals in the first step
D. the three suppliers submitting the best proposals in the first step
300-210 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
If MIS requests a full use copy of a piece of software for evaluation, it is essential that the purchasing department
A. have return shipping costs paid by the supplier
B. execute an evaluation license
C. issue a purchase order
D. confirm receipt
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
In an environment where time to market is critical, it is MOST beneficial to do which of the
following?
A. Computerize the quotation system via EDI
B. Have selected suppliers use on-site consignment warehousing
C. Develop two suppliers for every part to assure availability
D. Work jointly with a supplier on the design
300-210 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 20
In a manufacturing stockless inventory program, the purchased raw material physically enters purchased goods inventory at which of the following times?
A. Five days before it is needed
B. One day before it is needed
C. At the time of delivery
D. Never, since it becomes work in progress or goods shipped
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following is MOST suitable for an item that is: 1) used continuously at varying rates; 2) used by only one department within the organization; and 3) a low-cost, high-volume item that is requisitioned frequently?
A. Bill of material
B. Purchase order
C. EDI
D. Systems contract
300-210 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following is TRUE with regard to direct costs?
A. They increase as a function of product/service output.
B. They change as a basis for the allocation of overhead.
C. They decrease per unit as output rises.
D. None of the above
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
Assistance in finding global sources is LEAST likely to come from which of the following?
A. Chambers of Commerce
B. World Wide Web
C. Embassies
D. Trading companies
300-210 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following types of bonds are used to protect purchasers and their organizations?
A. Performance bonds
B. Corporate bonds
C. Bearer bonds
D. Municipal bonds
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 25
A request for bids using an approved products list is an example of what type of solicitation?
A. Two-step bidding
B. Restricted competition
C. Alternate proposals
D. Competitive proposals
300-210 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 26
When a supplier deals directly with several user departments within an organization, this is LEAST likely to lead to which of the following?
A. Bureaucratic problems for purchasing
B. Increased supplier knowledge about the organization
C. Confusion and uncertainty
D. Lower total acquisition costs
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 27
Open-end orders call for which of the following?
A. Purchase of a given amount of material over the term of the contract
B. Delivery of material on specific due dates
C. No obligation on the part of the seller
D. Delivery at fixed prices during a defined period
300-210 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 28
The buyer of a sole-source specialty chemical has, in the last three years, been faced with price increases ranging from 10 percent to 15 percent. To help fight continuing increases, the buyer should FIRST develop which of the following?
A. A trend chart based on the Consumer Price Index
B. A cost model to better understand the supplier’s price
C. A tough, “hold-the-line” bargaining position
D. In-house capability to produce the specialty chemical
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
All of the following are required items in computing total cost in capital equipment procurement analysis EXCEPT
A. production inventory investment
B. installation and start-up costs
C. performance guarantees
D. warranty considerations
300-210 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following members of the buying organization is LEAST likely to be a member of a supplier analysis team?
A. The controller
B. The design engineer
C. The quality assurance manager
D. The production engineer
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following factors generally has NO bearing in a supplier performance rating system?
A. Quality
B. Delivery
C. Past price
D. Service
300-210 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32
Under the terms of the Uniform Commercial Code, a buyer and a supplier may do which of the following? I. Make a binding contract without agreeing on an exact price until a later date II. Revoke a contract at any time if it does not contain an exact price
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
A salesperson, who has no authority to do so, represents herself to be a salesperson for a certain company and solicits orders. A buyer occasionally gives the salesperson orders for the company the salesperson says she represents. The so-called salesperson takes the orders. The company fills the orders without indicating to the buyer that the salesperson is not an authorized agent of the company. According to the law of agency, which of the following statements applies in these circumstances?
A. The salesperson derives no authority to act as an agent because of her misrepresentations to the buyer.
B. The salesperson derives authority to act as an agent because of the acquiescence of the
company whose products she sells and the failure of the company to notify the buyer that the
  salesperson is not its authorized agent.
C. The salesperson derives no authority to act as an agent because she does not possess a written authorization appointing her as an agent.
D. The salesperson derives authority to act as an agent because there is no legal requirement to have an agreement between principal and agent to create an agency.
300-210 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
Of the following, the MOST meaningful indicator of an individual firm’s trend of profitability is the
A. change in after-tax return on average invested capital
B. change in average profit margin on the product line
C. period-to-period change in cost of goods sold
D. earnings per share of common stock
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 35
In determining and evaluating financial strategies, a company purchaser may decide to buy in advance due to anticipated price increases or shortages of a specific commodity. These decisions are considered beneficial to the company if cost/benefit analyses indicates which of the following?
A. Substantial purchase price variance
B. Significant rate of return
C. Lower total cost of ownership
D. Decrease in carrying cost
300-210 dumps Answer: C

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