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300-070 dumps

Pass4itsure Cisco Exam 300-070 Dumps Blog Series 56-74

QUESTION 56
You want to know whether a packet filter is in front of 192.168.1.10. Pings to 192.168.1.10 don’t get answered. A basic nmap scan of 192.168.1.10 seems to hang without returning any information. What should you do next?
A. Use NetScan Tools Pro to conduct the scan
B. Run nmap XMAS scan against 192.168.1.10
C. Run NULL TCP hping2 against 192.168.1.10
D. The firewall is blocking all the scans to 192.168.1.10
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57
What does ICMP (type 11, code 0) denote?
A. Unknown Type
B. Time Exceeded
C. Source Quench
D. Destination Unreachable
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An ICMP Type 11, Code 0 means Time Exceeded [RFC792], Code 0 = Time to Live exceeded in Transit and Code 1 = Fragment Reassembly Time Exceeded.

QUESTION 58
An nmap command that includes the host specification of 202.176.56-57.* will scan _______ number of hosts.
A. 2
B. 256
C. 512
D. Over 10,000
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The hosts with IP address 202.176.56.0-255 & 202.176.56.0-255 will be scanned (256+256=512)

QUESTION 59
A specific site received 91 ICMP_ECHO packets within 90 minutes from 47 different sites. 77 of the ICMP_ECHO packets had an ICMP ID:39612 and Seq:57072.
13 of the ICMP_ECHO packets had an ICMP ID:0 and Seq:0. What can you infer from this information?
A. The packets were sent by a worm spoofing the IP addresses of 47 infected sites
B. ICMP ID and Seq numbers were most likely set by a tool and not by the operating system
C. All 77 packets came from the same LAN segment and hence had the same ICMP ID and Seq number
D. 13 packets were from an external network and probably behind a NAT, as they had an ICMP ID 0 and Seq 0
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 60
Which of the following commands runs snort in packet logger mode?
A. ./snort -dev -h ./log
B. ./snort -dev -l ./log
C. ./snort -dev -o ./log
D. ./snort -dev -p ./log
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Note: If you want to store the packages in binary mode for later analysis use ./snort -l ./log -b

QUESTION 61
Which of the following command line switch would you use for OS detection in Nmap?
A. -D
B. -O
C. -P
D. -X
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
OS DETECTION: -O: Enable OS detection (try 2nd generation w/fallback to 1st) -O2: Only use the new OS detection system (no fallback) -O1: Only use the old (1st generation) OS detection system –osscan-limit: Limit OS detection to promising targets –osscan-guess: Guess OS more aggressively

QUESTION 62
You ping a target IP to check if the host is up. You do not get a response. You suspect ICMP is blocked at the firewall. Next you use hping2 tool to ping the target host and you get a response. Why does the host respond to hping2 and not ping packet?
[ceh]# ping 10.2.3.4 PING 10.2.3.4 (10.2.3.4) from 10.2.3.80 : 56(84) bytes of data.
— 10.2.3.4 ping statistics — 3 packets transmitted, 0 packets received, 100% packet loss [ceh]# ./hping2 -c 4 -n -i 2 10.2.3.4 HPING 10.2.3.4 (eth0 10.2.3.4): NO FLAGS are set, 40 headers + 0 data bytes len=46 ip=10.2.3.4 flags=RA seq=0 ttl=128 id=54167 win=0 rtt=0.8 ms len=46 ip=10.2.3.4 flags=RA seq=1 ttl=128 id=54935 win=0 rtt=0.7 ms len=46 ip=10.2.3.4 flags=RA seq=2 ttl=128 id=55447 win=0 rtt=0.7 ms len=46 ip=10.2.3.4 flags=RA seq=3 ttl=128 id=55959 win=0 rtt=0.7 ms — 10.2.3.4 hping statistic — 4 packets tramitted, 4 packets received, 0% packet loss round-trip  min/avg/max = 0.7/0.8/0.8 ms
A. ping packets cannot bypass firewalls
B. you must use ping 10.2.3.4 switch
C. hping2 uses TCP instead of ICMP by default
D. hping2 uses stealth TCP packets to connect
300-070 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Default protocol is TCP, by default hping2 will send tcp headers to target host’s port 0 with a winsize of 64 without any tcp flag on. Often this is the best way to do an ‘hide ping’, useful when target is behind a firewall that drop ICMP. Moreover a tcp null-flag to port 0 has a good probability of not being logged.

QUESTION 63
You have initiated an active operating system fingerprinting attempt with nmap against a target system: [[email protected] NG]# /usr/local/bin/nmap -sT -O 10.0.0.1 Starting nmap 3.28 ( www.insecure.org/nmap/) at 2003-06-18 19:14 IDT Interesting ports on 10.0.0.1: (The 1628 ports scanned but not shown below are in state: closed) Port State Service
21/tcp filtered ftp
22/tcp filtered ssh
25/tcp open smtp
80/tcp open http
135/tcp open loc-srv

139/tcp open netbios-ssn
389/tcp open LDAP
443/tcp open https
465/tcp open smtps
1029/tcp open ms-lsa
1433/tcp open ms-sql-s
2301/tcp open compaqdiag
5555/tcp open freeciv
5800/tcp open vnc-http
5900/tcp open vnc
6000/tcp filtered X11
Remote operating system guess: Windows XP, Windows 2000, NT4 or 95/98/98SE Nmap run completed — 1 IP address (1 host up) scanned in 3.334 seconds Using its fingerprinting tests nmap is unable to distinguish between different groups of Microsoft based operating systems – Windows XP, Windows 2000, NT4 or 95/98/98SE. What operating system is the target host running based on the open ports shown above?
A. Windows XP
B. Windows 98 SE
C. Windows NT4 Server
D. Windows 2000 Server
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The system is reachable as an active directory domain controller (port 389, LDAP)

QUESTION 64
Study the log below and identify the scan type. tcpdump -vv host 192.168.1.10
17:34:45.802163 eth0 < 192.168.1.1 > victim: ip-proto-117 0 (ttl 48, id 36166)
17:34:45.802216 eth0 < 192.168.1.1 > victim: ip-proto-25 0 (ttl 48, id 33796)
17:34:45.802266 eth0 < 192.168.1.1 > victim: ip-proto-162 0 (ttl 48, id 47066)
17:34:46.111982 eth0 < 192.168.1.1 > victim: ip-proto-74 0 (ttl 48, id 35585)
17:34:46.112039 eth0 < 192.168.1.1 > victim: ip-proto-117 0 (ttl 48, id 32834)
17:34:46.112092 eth0 < 192.168.1.1 > victim: ip-proto-25 0 (ttl 48, id 26292)
17:34:46.112143 eth0 < 192.168.1.1 > victim: ip-proto-162 0 (ttl 48, id 51058)
tcpdump -vv -x host 192.168.1.10
17:35:06.731739 eth0 < 192.168.1.10 > victim: ip-proto-130 0 (ttl 59, id 42060) 4500 0014 a44c 0000 3b82 57b8 c0a8 010a c0a8 0109 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000
A. nmap -sR 192.168.1.10
B. nmap -sS 192.168.1.10
C. nmap -sV 192.168.1.10
D. nmap -sO -T 192.168.1.10
300-070 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 65
Why would an attacker want to perform a scan on port 137?
A. To discover proxy servers on a network
B. To disrupt the NetBIOS SMB service on the target host
C. To check for file and print sharing on Windows systems
D. To discover information about a target host using NBTSTAT
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Microsoft encapsulates netbios information within TCP/Ip using ports 135-139. It is trivial for an attacker to issue the following command: nbtstat -A (your Ip address) from their windows machine and collect information about your windows machine (if you are not blocking traffic to port 137 at your borders).

QUESTION 66
Steve scans the network for SNMP enabled devices. Which port number Steve should scan?
A. 69
B. 150
C. 161
D. 169
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The SNMP default port is 161. Port 69 is used for tftp, 150 is for SQL-NET and 169 is for SEND.

QUESTION 67
One of the ways to map a targeted network for live hosts is by sending an ICMP ECHO request to the broadcast or the network address. The request would be broadcasted to all hosts on the targeted network. The live hosts will send an ICMP ECHO Reply to the attacker source IP address. You send a ping request to the broadcast address 192.168.5.255. [[email protected]/root]# ping -b 192.168.5.255 WARNING: pinging broadcast address PING 192.168.5.255 (192.168.5.255) from 192.168.5.1 : 56(84) bytes of data. 64 bytes from 192.168.5.1: icmp_seq=0 ttl=255 time=4.1 ms 64 bytes from 192.168.5.5: icmp_seq=0 ttl=255 time=5.7 ms — There are 40 computers up and running on the target network. Only 13 hosts send a reply while others do not. Why?
A. You cannot ping a broadcast address. The above scenario is wrong.
B. You should send a ping request with this command ping 192.168.5.0-255
C. Linux machines will not generate an answer (ICMP ECHO Reply) to an ICMP ECHO request aimed at the broadcast address or at the network address.
D. Windows machines will not generate an answer (ICMP ECHO Reply) to an ICMP ECHO request aimed at the broadcast address or at the network address.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
As stated in the correct option, Microsoft Windows does not handle pings to a broadcast address correctly and therefore ignores them.

QUESTION 68
Which Type of scan sends a packets with no flags set ?
Select the Answer
A. Open Scan
B. Null Scan
C. Xmas Scan
D. Half-Open Scan
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The types of port connections supported are:

QUESTION 69
You want to know whether a packet filter is in front of 192.168.1.10. Pings to 192.168.1.10 don’t get answered. A basic nmap scan of 192.168.1.10 seems to hang
without returning any information. What should you do next?
A. Use NetScan Tools Pro to conduct the scan
B. Run nmap XMAS scan against 192.168.1.10
C. Run NULL TCP hping2 against 192.168.1.10
D. The firewall is blocking all the scans to 192.168.1.10
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 70
While doing fast scan using F option, which file is used to list the range of ports to scan by nmap?
A. services
B. nmap-services
C. protocols
D. ports
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Nmap uses the nmap-services file to provide additional port detail for almost every scanning method. Every time a port is referenced, it’s compared to an available description in this support file. If the nmap-services file isn’t available, nmap reverts to the /etc/services file applicable for the current operating system.

QUESTION 71
Bob is a Junior Administrator at ABC.com is searching the port number of POP3 in a file. The partial output of the file is look like: In which file he is searching?
A. services
B. protocols
C. hosts
D. resolve.conf
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The port numbers on which certain standard services are offered are defined in the RFC 1700 Assigned Numbers. The /etc/services file enables server and client
programs to convert service names to these numbers -ports. The list is kept on each host and it is stored in the file /etc/services.

QUESTION 72
Exhibit:
Please study the exhibit carefully.
Which Protocol maintains the communication on that way?
A. UDP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. ARP
E. RARP
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A TCP connection is always initiated with the 3-way handshake, which establishes and negotiates the actual connection over which data will be sent.

QUESTION 73
What are the four steps is used by nmap scanning?
A. DNS Lookup
B. ICMP Message
C. Ping
D. Reverse DNS lookup
E. TCP three way handshake
F. The Actual nmap scan
Correct Answer: ACDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Nmap performs four steps during a normal device scan. Some of these steps can be modified or disabled using options on the nmap command line.

QUESTION 74
Your are trying the scan a machine located at ABC company’s LAN named mail.abc.com. Actually that machine located behind the firewall. Which port is used by
nmap to send the TCP synchronize frame to on mail.abc.com?
A. 443
B. 80
C. 8080
D. 23

300-070 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

300-070 dumps

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LX0-101 dumps

Pass4itsure CompTIA Exam LX0-101 Dumps Blog Series:

QUESTION NO: 6
An administrator has just added a CD-ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to a system and added it to the administrator’s fstab. Typically the administrator can use which of the following commands to mount media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom?
A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
B. mount /dev/cdrom
C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
D. mount /mnt/cdrom
E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom}
LX0-101 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
An administrator wishes to kill a process with a PID of 123. Which of the following commands will allow the process to “clean up” before exiting?
A. kill -1 123
B. kill -9 123
C. kill -15 123
D. kill -17 123
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8 CORRECT TEXT
What command with all options and/or parameters will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of program apache2?
LX0-101 dumps Answer: KILLALL-SSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL SIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-USR1APACHE2
QUESTION NO: 9
All of the following commands will update the Modify timestamp on the file /tmp/myfile.txt EXCEPT:
A. file /tmp/myfile.txt
B. echo “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
C. sed -ie “s/1/2/” /tmp/myfile.txt
D. echo -n “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
E. touch /tmp/myfile.txt
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
In the vi editor, which of the following commands will delete the current line at the cursor and the 16 lines following it (17 lines total)?
A. 17d
B. 17dd
C. 17x
D. d17d
E. 16d
LX0-101 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Mitigating the risk and impact of a disaster or business interruption usually takes priority over transference of risk to a third party such as an insurer. True or false?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Mitigating the risk and impact of a disaster or business interruption usually takes priority over transferring risk to a third party such as an insurer.
QUESTION 12
Off-site data storage should be kept synchronized when preparing for recovery of time
sensitive data such as that resulting from which of the following? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Financial reporting
B. Sales reporting
C. Inventory reporting
D. Transaction processing
LX0-101 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Off-site data storage should be kept synchronized when preparing for the recovery of timesensitive data such as that resulting from transaction processing.
QUESTION 13
What is an acceptable recovery mechanism for extremely time-sensitive transaction
processing?
A. Off-site remote journaling
B. Electronic vaulting
C. Shadow file processing
D. Storage area network
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Shadow file processing can be implemented as a recovery mechanism for
extremely time-sensitive transaction processing.
QUESTION 14
Off-site data backup and storage should be geographically separated so as to ________________ (fill in the blank) the risk of a widespread physical disaster
such as a hurricane or earthquake.
A. Accept
B. Eliminate
C. Transfer
D. Mitigate
LX0-101 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Off-site data backup and storage should be geographically separated, to mitigate the risk
of a widespread physical disaster such as a hurricane or an earthquake.
QUESTION 15
Why is a clause for requiring source code escrow in an application vendor agreement important?
A. To segregate systems development and live environments
B. To protect the organization from copyright disputes
C. To ensure that sufficient code is available when needed
D. To ensure that the source code remains available even if the application vendor goes out of business
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A clause for requiring source code escrow in an application vendor agreement is
important to ensure that the source code remains available even if the application
vendor goes out of business.
QUESTION 16
What uses questionnaires to lead the user through a series of choices to reach a conclusion? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Logic trees
B. Decision trees
C. Decision algorithms

D. Logic algorithms
LX0-101 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Decision trees use questionnaires to lead the user through a series of choices to
reach a conclusion.
QUESTION 17
What protects an application purchaser’s ability to fix or change an application in case the
application vendor goes out of business?
A. Assigning copyright to the organization
B. Program back doors
C. Source code escrow
D. Internal programming expertise
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Source code escrow protects an application purchaser’s ability to fix or change an
application in case the application vendor goes out of business.
QUESTION 18
Who is ultimately responsible for providing requirement specifications to the software
development team?
A. The project sponsor
B. The project members
C. The project leader
D. The project steering committee
LX0-101 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project sponsor is ultimately responsible for providing requirement specifications to
the software-development team.
QUESTION 19
What should regression testing use to obtain accurate conclusions regarding the
effects of changes or corrections to a program, and ensuring that those changes and
corrections have not introduced new errors?
A. Contrived data
B. Independently created data

C. Live data
D. Data from previous tests
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Regression testing should use data from previous tests to obtain accurate conclusions
regarding the effects of changes or corrections to a program, and ensuring that
those changes and corrections have not introduced new errors.
QUESTION 20
An IS auditor should carefully review the functional requirements in a systems
development project to ensure that the project is designed to:
A. Meet business objectives
B. Enforce data security
C. Be culturally feasible
D. Be financially feasible
LX0-101 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
An IS auditor should carefully review the functional requirements in a systems
development project to ensure that the project is designed to meet business objectives.
QUESTION 21
Which of the following processes are performed during the design phase of the
systemsdevelopment life cycle (SDLC) model?
A. Develop test plans.
B. Baseline procedures to prevent scope creep.
C. Define the need that requires resolution, and map to the major requirements of the solution.
D. Program and test the new system. The tests verify and validate what has been developed.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Procedures to prevent scope creep are baselined in the design phase of the
systems-development life cycle (SDLC) model.
QUESTION 22
When should application controls be considered within the system-development process?
A. After application unit testing
B. After application module testing

C. After applications systems testing
D. As early as possible, even in the development of the project’s functional specifications
LX0-101 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Application controls should be considered as early as possible in the system development process, even in the development of the project’s functional specifications.
QUESTION 23
What is used to develop strategically important systems faster, reduce development costs,
and still maintain high quality? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Rapid application development (RAD)
B. GANTT
C. PERT
D. Decision trees
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Rapid application development (RAD) is used to develop strategically important systems
faster, reduce development costs, and still maintain high quality.
QUESTION 24
Test and development environments should be separated. True or false?
A. True
B. False
LX0-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Test and development environments should be separated, to control the stability of the
test environment.
QUESTION 25
What kind of testing should programmers perform following any changes to an
application or system?
A. Unit, module, and full regression testing
B. Module testing
C. Unit testing
D. Regression testing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 26
Which of the following are included in Technical Controls? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Identification and authentication methods
B. Configuration of the infrastructure
C. Password and resource management
D. Implementing and maintaining access control mechanisms
E. Security devices
F. Conducting security-awareness training
LX0-101 pdf Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Explanation:
Technical Controls are also known as Logical Controls. These controls include the following: Implementing and maintaining access control mechanisms Password and resource management Identification and authentication methods Security devices Configuration of the infrastructure Answer: F is incorrect. It is a part of Administrative Controls.
QUESTION NO: 27
What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
D. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
Answer: C
Explanation:
Software Assurance Acquisition process defines the level of confidence that
software is free from vulnerabilities. It is designed into the software or accidentally inserted at anytime during its lifecycle, and the software works in a planned manner. According to the U.S. Department of Defense and Department of Homeland Security Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group, the Software Assurance Acquisition process contains the following phases:
1.Planning 2.Contracting 3.Monitoring and acceptance 4.Follow-on
QUESTION NO: 28
Companies use some special marks to distinguish their products from those of other companies. These marks can include words, letters, numbers, drawings, etc. Which of the following terms describes these special marks?
A. Business mark
B. Trademark
C. Sales mark
D. Product mark
LX0-101 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
A trademark is a mark that is used by a company to distinguish its products from those of other companies. There are various ways a company uses its trademark to distinguish its products from others. It can use words, letters, numbers, drawings, pictures, and so on, in its trademark. Answer: D, A, and C are incorrect. There is no such mark as product mark, business mark, or sales mark.
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following features of SIEM products is used in analysis for identifying potential problems and reviewing all available data that are associated with the problems?
A. Security knowledge base
B. Graphical user interface
C. Asset information storage and correlation
D. Incident tracking and reporting
Answer: B
Explanation:
SIEM product has a graphical user interface (GUI) which is used in analysis for identifying potential problems and reviewing all available data that are associated with the problems. A graphical user interface (GUI) is a type of user interface that allows people to interact with programs in more ways than typing commands on computers. The term came into existence because the first interactive user interfaces to computers were not graphical; they were text- and keyboard oriented and usually consisted of commands a user had to remember and computer responses that were infamously brief. A GUI offers graphical icons, and visual indicators, as opposed to text-based interfaces, typed command labels or text navigation to fully represent the information and actions available to a user. The actions are usually performed through direct manipulation of the graphical elements.
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following is the process of finding weaknesses in cryptographic algorithms and obtaining the plaintext or key from the ciphertext?
A. Cryptographer
B. Cryptography
C. Kerberos
D. Cryptanalysis
LX0-101 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
Cryptanalysis is the process of analyzing cipher text and finding weaknesses in cryptographic algorithms. These weaknesses can be used to decipher the cipher text without knowing the secret key. Answer: C is incorrect. Kerberos is an industry standard authentication protocol used to verify user or host identity. Kerberos v5 authentication protocol is the default authentication service for Windows 2000. It is integrated into the administrative and security model, and provides secure communication between Windows 2000 Server domains and clients.
Answer: A is incorrect. A cryptographer is a person who is involved in cryptography.
Answer: B is incorrect. Cryptography is a branch of computer science and mathematics. It is used for protecting information by encoding it into an unreadable format known as cipher text.

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Pass4itsure Citrix Exam 1Y0-A19 Dumps Blog Series:

QUESTION 13
How can an administrator remotely access a Controller in a XenDesktop environment in order to assign a dedicated desktop to a new user?
A. Install the Controller software on the server being used to access the Controller and point it to the appropriate Controller.
B. Install Desktop Studio on the server being used to access the Controller and point Desktop Studio to the appropriate Controller.
C. Install Web Interface on the server being used to access the Controller and log on to the appropriate Controller through Web Interface.
D. Install Desktop Director on the server being used to access the Controller and use Desktop Director to log on to the appropriate Controller.
1Y0-A19 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which HDX MediaStream policy setting must an administrator configure to adjust the quality of Flash content rendered on session hosts?
A. Flash (client-side)
B. Flash (server-side)
C. Multimedia Acceleration
D. Multimedia Acceleration buffer size
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which user action is prevented by enabling the client clipboard redirection policy?
A. Uploading images from the Internet to a user session
B. Downloading images from the server to a user session
C. Copying and pasting between applications within user sessions
D. Copying and pasting between user sessions and the local machine
1Y0-A19 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
An administrator must configure the Web Interface in order to 3II0W users to access applications, virtual desktops and online content by clicking icons on their desktops or start menus. Which Web Interface site must the administrator configure to meet the requirements of this environment?
A. XenAppWeb
B. XenApp Services
C. XenDesktop Web
D. Desktop Appliance
E. XenDesktop Services
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Scenario: An administrator needs to ensure that end users can only access their client’s default printer during sessions. The administrator set the Auto-create client printers policy setting to ‘Auto-create the client’s default printer only’. When additional policy setting must the administrator ensure is set to ‘Allowed’?
A. Default printer
B. Client printer redirection
C. Direct connections to print servers
D. Retained and restored client printers
1Y0-A19 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Scenario: An administrator created a catalog for virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) using Provisioning services. The catalog contains 500 desktop, and a desktop group contains 200 desktops from this catalog. The Power Time Scheme for this desktop group is set to the default Fifty desk any desktops are in the use. How many desktops are in the ‘off state?
A. 15
B. 75
C. 135
D. 150
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
An administrator is configuring a master image and knows that the end users accessing it will need to use WinZip. Which delivery mechanism should the administrator use to deliver WinZip to the users?
A. Stream WinZip to a XenApp server.
B. Install WinZip on the XenClient image.
C. Host WnZip in a XenApp environment.
D. Install WinZip on the master image locally.
1Y0-A19 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
An administrator needs to ensure that when user desktops are not in use at busy times of the day, they are added back into the idle pool. How should the administrator accomplish this task?
A. Set ‘When logged off’ to ten minutes/shutdown under ‘During peak hour’.
B. Set ‘When disconnected’ to five minutes/suspend under ‘During peak hours’.
C. Set ‘When logged off’ to twenty minutes/shutdown under ‘During off-peak hours’.
D. Set ‘When disconnected’ to fifteen minutes/suspend under ‘During off-peak hours’.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which action must an administrator take before implementing HDX MediaStream Flash Redirection?
A. Install the Flash Player on the server.
B. Stream the Flash Player to the server.
C. Install the Flash Player on the user device.
D. Stream the Flash Player to the user device.
1Y0-A19 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which set of steps must be completed to configure a target device to start up from a vDisk?
A. Add target device to a site, assign a vDisk to the device and set device to start up from vDisk.
B. Add target device to a collection, assign a vDisk to the device and set device to start up from vDisk.
C. Add target device to a site, assign a vDisk to the device and configure the vDisk to use private image access mode.
D. Add target device to a collection, assign a vDisk to the device and configure the vDisk to use standard image access mode.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Scenario: All users in the Sales group must be able to save documents created on their virtual desktops to USB devices connected to their local desktops. Some users in the Sales group also belong to the Remote Users group; however, the Remote Users group must not be able to save documents to a local USB device. An administrator created the Sales USB policy, which allows Client USB device redirection for the Sales group, and the Remote Users USB policy, which prohibits Client USB device redirection for the Remote Users group. Which additional step must the administrator take to meet the needs of this scenario?
A. Set the Remote Users USB policy to ‘Disable’.
B. Edit the USB device list on the endpoint device.
C. Ensure that the Sales USB policy has highest priority.
D. Add Client USB device redirection rules to the Sales USB policy.
1Y0-A19 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Scenario: An administrator needs to create a catalog. Provisioning services-based virtual machines will be imported into the catalog. Which machine type must the administrator select when creating the catalog?
A. Pooled
B. Existing
C. Streamed
D. Dedicated
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Scenario: The design for an environment requires that Web Interface is load balanced across multiple servers. An administrator has been asked to figure one master site and to distribute the configuration of that site throughout the Web Interface implementation. Which two steps must the administrator take in order to share the master site’s configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Edit the boot strap configuration file of the other sites to point to the IP address of the master site.
B. Set up file sharing permission to allow access over the network to the configuration folder of the master site
C. Replace the configuration files of the other sites with the master site’s configuration file to ensure they point to the same configuration.
D. Change the setting of the configuration location parameter of the other sites to point to the absolute network path of the master site’s configuration.
1Y0-A19 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 26
Scenario: An administrator configured the Client fixed drives policy setting to allow all end users to access or save files to fixed drives on their devices. Users are still unable to map client fixed drives, and they cannot access the fixed drives manually. Users are unable to map and access fixed drives on their user devices because _____ and _____. (Choose the two correct phases to complete the sentence.)
A. Asynchronous writes are NOT enabled
B. Client drive letters are NOT being preserved
C. The Client drive redirection policy setting is NOT enabled
D. The Auto connect client drives policy setting in NOT enabled
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 27
What are intrusion-detection systems (IDS) primarily used for?
A. To identify AND prevent intrusion attempts to a network
B. To prevent intrusion attempts to a network
C. Forensic incident response
D. To identify intrusion attempts to a network
1Y0-A19 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Intrusion-detection systems (IDS) are used to identify intrusion attempts on a network.
QUESTION 28
Rather than simply reviewing the adequacy of access control, appropriateness of access
policies, and effectiveness of safeguards and procedures, the IS auditor is more concerned with effectiveness and utilization of assets. True or false?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Instead of simply reviewing the effectiveness and utilization of assets, an IS auditor is
more concerned with adequate access control, appropriate access policies, and effectiveness of safeguards and procedures.
QUESTION 29
If a programmer has update access to a live system, IS auditors are more concerned with
the programmer’s ability to initiate or modify transactions and the ability to access production than with the programmer’s ability to authorize transactions. True or false?
A. True
B. False
1Y0-A19 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If a programmer has update access to a live system, IS auditors are more concerned with
the programmer’s ability to initiate or modify transactions and the ability to access
production than with the programmer’s ability to authorize transactions.
QUESTION 30
Organizations should use off-site storage facilities to maintain _________________ (fill
in the blank) of current and critical information within backup files. Choose the BEST answer.
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Redundancy
D. Concurrency
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Redundancy is the best answer because it provides both integrity and availability. Organizations should use off-site storage facilities to maintain redundancy of current and
critical information within backup files.
QUESTION 31
The purpose of business continuity planning and disaster-recovery planning is to:
A. Transfer the risk and impact of a business interruption or disaster
B. Mitigate, or reduce, the risk and impact of a business interruption or disaster
C. Accept the risk and impact of a business
D. Eliminate the risk and impact of a business interruption or disaster
1Y0-A19 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The primary purpose of business continuity planning and disaster-recovery planning is to mitigate, or reduce, the risk and impact of a business interruption or disaster. Total elimination of risk is impossible.
QUESTION 32
If a database is restored from information backed up before the last system image, which
of the following is recommended?
A. The system should be restarted after the last transaction.
B. The system should be restarted before the last transaction.
C. The system should be restarted at the first transaction.
D. The system should be restarted on the last transaction.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If a database is restored from information backed up before the last system image, the system should be restarted before the last transaction because the final transaction must be reprocessed.
QUESTION 33
An off-site processing facility should be easily identifiable externally because easy
identification helps ensure smoother recovery. True or false?
A. True
B. False
1Y0-A19 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
An off-site processing facility should not be easily identifiable externally because
easy identification would create an additional vulnerability for sabotage.
QUESTION 34
Which of the following is the dominating objective of BCP and DRP?
A. To protect human life
B. To mitigate the risk and impact of a business interruption
C. To eliminate the risk and impact of a business interruption
D. To transfer the risk and impact of a business interruption
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Although the primary business objective of BCP and DRP is to mitigate the risk and
impact of a business interruption, the dominating objective remains the protection of human life.

QUESTION 35
How can minimizing single points of failure or vulnerabilities of a common disaster best
be controlled?
A. By implementing redundant systems and applications onsite
B. By geographically dispersing resources
C. By retaining onsite data backup in fireproof vaults
D. By preparing BCP and DRP documents for commonly identified disasters
1Y0-A19 exam Correct Answer: B

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300-209 dumps

Pass4itsure Cisco Exam 300-209 Dumps Blog Series:

QUESTION 169
To change the title panel on the logon page of the Cisco IOS WebVPN portal, which file must you configure?
A. Cisco IOS WebVPN customization template
B. Cisco IOS WebVPN customization general
C. web-access-hlp.inc
D. app-access-hlp.inc
300-209 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 170
After completing a site-to-site VPN setup between two routers, application performance over the tunnel is slow. You issue the show crypto ipsec sa command and see the following output. What does this output suggest? interfacE. Tunnel100 Crypto map tag: Tunnel100-head-0, local addr 10.10.10.10 protected vrF. (none) local ident (addr/mask/prot/port): (10.10.10.10/255.255.255.255/47/0) remote ident (addr/mask/prot/port): (10.20.20.20/255.255.255.255/47/0)  current_peer 209.165.200.230 port 500 PERMIT, flags={origin_is_acl,}
#pkts encaps: 34836, #pkts encrypt: 34836, #pkts digest: 34836
#pkts decaps: 26922, #pkts decrypt: 19211, #pkts verify: 19211
#pkts compresseD. 0, #pkts decompresseD. 0
#pkts not compresseD. 0, #pkts compr. faileD. 0
#pkts not decompresseD. 0, #pkts decompress faileD. 0
#send errors 0, #recv errors 0
A. The VPN has established and is functioning normally.
B. There is an asymmetric routing issue.
C. The remote peer is not receiving encrypted traffic.
D. The remote peer is not able to decrypt traffic.
E. Packet corruption is occurring on the path between the two peers.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
An internet-based VPN solution is being considered to replace an existing private WAN connecting remote offices. A multimedia application is used that relies on multicast for communication. Which two VPN solutions meet the application’s network requirement? (Choose two.)
A. FlexVPN
B. DMVPN
C. Group Encrypted Transport VPN
D. Crypto-map based Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs
E. AnyConnect VPN
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 172
Which three types of web resources or protocols are enabled by default on the Cisco ASA Clientless SSL VPN portal? (Choose three.)
A. HTTP
B. VNC
C. CIFS
D. RDP
E. HTTPS
F. ICA (Citrix)
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 173
Which command simplifies the task of converting an SSL VPN to an IKEv2 VPN on a Cisco ASA appliance that has an invalid IKEv2 configuration?
A. migrate remote-access ssl overwrite
B. migrate remote-access ikev2
C. migrate l2l
D. migrate remote-access ssl
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Below is a reference for this question:
If your IKEv1, or even SSL, configuration already exists, the ASA makes the migration process simple. On the command line, enter the migrate command: migrate {l2l | remote-access {ikev2 | ssl} | overwrite} Things of note: Keyword definitions: l2l – This converts current IKEv1 l2l tunnels to IKEv2. remote access – This converts the remote access configuration. You can convert either the IKEv1 or the SSL tunnel groups to IKEv2.
overwrite – If you have a IKEv2 configuration that you wish to overwrite, then this keyword converts the current IKEv1 configuration and removes the superfluous IKEv2 configuration.
QUESTION 174
300-209 dumps

300-209 dumps

300-209 dumps

If the IKEv2 tunnel were to establish successfully, which encryption algorithm would be used to encrypt traffic?
A. DES
B. 3DES
C. AES
D. AES192
E. AES256
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Both ASA’s are configured to support AES 256, so during the IPSec negotiation they will use the strongest algorithm that is supported by each peer.
QUESTION 175
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

Which VPN solution does this configuration represent?
A. Cisco AnyConnect
B. IPsec
C. L2TP
D. SSL VPN
300-209 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Which three parameters are specified in the isakmp (IKEv1) policy? (Choose three.)
A. the hashing algorithm
B. the authentication method
C. the lifetime
D. the session key
E. the transform-set
F. the peer
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
QUESTION 177
What is a common vulnerability, allowing denial-of-service attacks?
A. Assigning access to users according to the principle of least privilege
B. Lack of employee awareness of organizational security policies
C. Improperly configured routers and router access lists
D. Configuring firewall access rules
300-209 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Improperly configured routers and router access lists are a common vulnerability for  denial-of-service attacks.
QUESTION 178
What are trojan horse programs? Choose the BEST answer.
A. A common form of internal attack
B. Malicious programs that require the aid of a carrier program such as email
C. Malicious programs that can run independently and can propagate without the aid of a carrier program such as email
D. A common form of Internet attack
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Trojan horse programs are a common form of Internet attack.
QUESTION 179
What is/are used to measure and ensure proper network capacity management and availability of services? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Network performance-monitoring tools
B. Network component redundancy
C. Syslog reporting
D. IT strategic planning
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Network performance-monitoring tools are used to measure and ensure proper network capacity management and availability of services.
QUESTION 180
What can be used to gather evidence of network attacks?
A. Access control lists (ACL)
B. Intrusion-detection systems (IDS)
C. Syslog reporting
D. Antivirus programs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Intrusion-detection systems (IDS) are used to gather evidence of network attacks.
QUESTION 181
Which of the following is a passive attack method used by intruders to determine

potential network vulnerabilities?
A. Traffic analysis
B. SYN flood
C. Denial of service (DoS)
D. Distributed denial of service (DoS)
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Traffic analysis is a passive attack method used by intruders to determine potential
network vulnerabilities. All others are active attacks.
QUESTION 182
Which of the following fire-suppression methods is considered to be the most environmentally friendly?
A. Halon gas
B. Deluge sprinklers
C. Dry-pipe sprinklers
D. Wet-pipe sprinklers
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Although many methods of fire suppression exist, dry-pipe sprinklers are considered to
be the most environmentally friendly.
QUESTION 183
What is a callback system?
A. It is a remote-access system whereby the remote-access server immediately calls the user back at a predetermined number if the dial-in connection fails.
B. It is a remote-access system whereby the user’s application automatically redials the remoteaccess server if the initial connection attempt fails.
C. It is a remote-access control whereby the user initially connects to the network systems via dial-up access, only to have the initial connection terminated by the server, which then subsequently dials the user back at a predetermined number stored in the server’s configuration database.
D. It is a remote-access control whereby the user initially connects to the network systems via dial-up access, only to have the initial connection terminated by the server, which then subsequently allows the user to call back at an approved number for a limited period of time.
300-209 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A callback system is a remote-access control whereby the user initially connects to the
network systems via dial-up access, only to have the initial connection terminated by the
server, which then subsequently dials the user back at a predetermined number
 stored in the server’s configuration database.
QUESTION 184
What type of fire-suppression system suppresses fire via water that is released from a main valve to be delivered via a system of dry pipes installed throughout the facilities?
A. A dry-pipe sprinkler system
B. A deluge sprinkler system
C. A wet-pipe system
D. A halon sprinkler system
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A dry-pipe sprinkler system suppresses fire via water that is released from a main valve
to be delivered via a system of dry pipes installed throughout the facilities.
QUESTION 185
Digital signatures require the sender to “sign” the data by encrypting the data with the sender’s public key, to then be decrypted by the recipient using the recipient’s private key. True or false?
A. False
B. True
300-209 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Digital signatures require the sender to “sign” the data by encrypting the data with the
sender’s private key, to then be decrypted by the recipient using the sender’s public key.
QUESTION 186
Which of the following provides the BEST single-factor authentication?
A. Biometrics
B. Password
C. Token
D. PIN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Although biometrics provides only single-factor authentication, many consider it to be an excellent method for user authentication.
QUESTION 187
What is used to provide authentication of the website and can also be used to successfully
authenticate keys used for data encryption?
A. An organizational certificate
B. A user certificate
C. A website certificate
D. Authenticode
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A website certificate is used to provide authentication of the website and can also be used
to successfully authenticate keys used for data encryption.
QUESTION 188
What determines the strength of a secret key within a symmetric key cryptosystem?
A. A combination of key length, degree of permutation, and the complexity of the data- encryption algorithm that uses the key
B. A combination of key length, initial input vectors, and the complexity of the data- encryption algorithm that uses the key
C. A combination of key length and the complexity of the data-encryption algorithm that uses the key
D. Initial input vectors and the complexity of the data-encryption algorithm that uses the key
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The strength of a secret key within a symmetric key cryptosystem is determined by a
combination of key length, initial input vectors, and the complexity of the data encryption algorithm that uses the key.
QUESTION 189
What process is used to validate a subject’s identity?
A. Identification
B. Nonrepudiation
C. Authorization
D. Authentication
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Authentication is used to validate a subject’s identity.
QUESTION 190
What is often assured through table link verification and reference checks?
A. Database integrity
B. Database synchronization
C. Database normalcy
D. Database accuracy
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Database integrity is most often ensured through table link verification and reference checks.
QUESTION 191
Which of the following should an IS auditor review to determine user permissions that
have been granted for a particular resource? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Systems logs
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Application logs
D. Error logs
300-209 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
IS auditors should review access-control lists (ACL) to determine user permissions that have been granted for a particular resource.
QUESTION 192
What should IS auditors always check when auditing password files?
A. That deleting password files is protected
B. That password files are encrypted
C. That password files are not accessible over the network
D. That password files are archived
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
IS auditors should always check to ensure that password files are encrypted.
QUESTION 193
Using the OSI reference model, what layer(s) is/are used to encrypt data?
A. Transport layer
B. Session layer

C. Session and transport layers
D. Data link layer
300-209 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
User applications often encrypt and encapsulate data using protocols within the OSI
session layer or farther down in the transport layer.
QUESTION 194
When should systems administrators first assess the impact of applications or systems patches?
A. Within five business days following installation
B. Prior to installation
C. No sooner than five business days following installation
D. Immediately following installation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Systems administrators should always assess the impact of patches before installation.
QUESTION 195
Which of the following is the most fundamental step in preventing virus attacks?
A. Adopting and communicating a comprehensive antivirus policy
B. Implementing antivirus protection software on users’ desktop computers
C. Implementing antivirus content checking at all network-to-Internet gateways
D. Inoculating systems with antivirus code
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Adopting and communicating a comprehensive antivirus policy is the most fundamental step in preventing virus attacks. All other antivirus prevention efforts rely upon decisions
established and communicated via policy.

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Pass4itsure Cisco Exam 600-509 Dumps Blog Series:
QUESTION 1
You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
600-509 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives?
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
600-509 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring & diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be  rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
600-509 pdf 
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 6
A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced?
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
600-509 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 9
As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed?
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
600-509 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2 credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
The introduction of reviews and inspections has often failed as a process improvement action. Identify the THREE most important measures that should be taken to reduce the risk that this test process improvement will fail. 2 Credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
A. Process ownership and experienced moderators who drive the inspection process.
B. Management support
C. Training of those involved
D. The availability of stands and processes
E. Usage of a more traditional software development lifecycle
F. Alignment with software process improvement
G. Using a reference model, e.g. TMMi

600-509 dumps Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12
IEEE 1028 also defines “management review” as a type of review. What is the main purpose of a management review? 1 credit
A. Align technical concepts during the design phase
B. Establish a common understanding of requirements
C. Provide independent evaluation of compliance to processes, regulations, standards etc.
D. To monitor progress, assess the status of a project, and make decisions about future actions
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase?
A. A requirements review meeting
B. A business analyst eliciting requirements
C. Performing acceptance tests against requirements
D. A test report showing requirements coverage
600-509 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Select THREE issues from the options provided that should at least be raised. 1 credit
A. Has there been sufficient comparison of tools?
B. What are the problems we are trying to address?
C. Do we have a set of tool requirements to validate the tool against?
D. How will the implementation be organized?
E. Which project will be selected to perform the tool pilot?
F. Is customized training available?
G. How will the change process be managed?
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 15
Which of the following would you least expect to form part of the analysis of initial tool costs? 1 credit
A. Integration with other tools
B. Learning time required to use the new tool
C. Tool portability
D. Evaluation of suitable tools
600-509 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year? 2 credits
i. We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.
ii. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.
iii. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.
iv. The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model? 1 credit
A. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is completed.
B. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
C. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
D. All document reviews involve the development team.
600-509 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which of the following would you expect to see in the master test plan? 1 credit
A. A description of how the test cases are cross-referenced to requirements in the test management tool.
B. A detailed identification of the resources that will carry out structural testing in the first iteration.
C. The test approach that will be applied at system integration testing.
D. A list of the names of the testers who will carry out the performance testing for the final iteration.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
To remove computers from ePO using the Active Directory Synchronization task, it is required that the account has access to the:
A. Deleted computers
B. Deleted Objects container
C. Organizational Unit
D. Active Directory.
600-509 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What option can be configured in the On-Access General Policy that is not an option in the local VirusScan console?
A. Boot sectors
B. Floppy during shutdown
C. Enable on-access scanning at system startup
D. Enable on-access scanning when the policy is enforced
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
To ensure that a Rogue System Detection Sensor is not installed on a managed system, what action needs to be performed?
A. Add the system to the Exception List
B. Add the system to the Blacklist
C. Add the system as Ignored
D. Add the system as Managed
600-509 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
When running a “Run Tag Criteria” server task and the box for “Reset manually tagged and excluded systems” box is checked, this would:
A. Include both systems that match and don’t match.
B. Remove the tag on systems that do match the criteria.
C. Add the tag on systems that don’t match the criteria.
D. Remove the tag on systems that don’t match the criteria.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Query results are displayed within ePO in what form? (Choose two)
A. PDF
B. Charts
C. XML
D. Tables
E. TXT
600-509 vce 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 24
Which of the following options are available when right clicking a file and selecting “Scan for threats”? (Choose two)
A. Clean
B. Delete
C. Continue
D. Prompt for action
E. Continue scanning
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
When configuring Product Deployment Client Tasks, the “Enable randomization” setting should be activated when managed client nodes exceed.
A. 100
B. 500
C. 750
D. 1000
600-509 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Which of the following should be the primary consideration when deploying Agent Handlers?
A. Database increasing in size
B. Log files increasing in size
C. Memory and resource allocation
D. High speed and low latency connection
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
When backing up an ePO server, which of the following security keys is required to restore agent server communication?
A. Local Master Repository Communication
B. Agent Server Secure Communication
C. Legacy Agent Server Communication
D. McAfee SIA Repository Communication
600-509 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the correct order for creating a query?
A. Configure Chart, choose Columns, select Result Type, apply Filter
B. Select Result Type, choose Columns, configure Chart, apply Filter
C. Configure Chart, select Result Type, choose Columns, apply Filter
D. Select Result Type, configure Chart, choose Columns, apply Filter
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Agent Handlers are used to:
A. Replace distributed repositories

B. Ensure agents receive policies, tasks, and product updates.
C. Fix a broken network segment.
D. Identify Rogue Systems on the network.
600-509 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
When a policy is deleted, all systems for which it is currently applied to will inherit which policy?
A. McAfee Default
B. Parent Group
C. My Default
D. Global Root
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Which of the following server services is responsible for communication with the McAfee Agent?
A. Apache
B. Tomcat
C. SQL
D. Event Parser
600-509 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which of the following is a core architecture component of ePO?
A. Internet Explorer
B. Event Parser
C. Active Directory
D. Agent Handler
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Why would a managed system appear in the Lost & Found group?
A. No matching criteria were found
B. Matched sorting criteria were found
C. Inactive Agent
D. Rogue Agent
600-509 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which areas of the console allow the resetting of inheritance? (Choose three)
A. Assigned Policies
B. Policy Catalog
C. Group Details
D. Systems
E. Client Tasks
Correct Answer: ABE

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Pass4itsure Cisco Exam 300-210 Dumps Blog Series:

QUESTION NO: 1
A purchaser places a purchase order with XYZ Company close to the need date. The MOST appropriate course of action for the purchaser to take would be to
A. tell the supplier to call 3 days prior to the promised shipping date
B. tell the receiving clerk to call the supplier if the materials are not received on the promised date
C. establish a follow-up file to call the supplier one week before the promised ship date
D. call the supplier the day the shipment is promised
300-210 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following contracts rewards performance above a set level by adding a percentage to price?
A. Bilateral
B. Blanket
C. Futures
D. Incentive
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
To ensure that a supplier will meet engineering specifications for a product, a buyer should insist on which of the following contract provisions?
A. An arbitration clause
B. The indexing of price to inspection costs
C. Discounts based on total purchases over a period of time
D. An acceptance test plan
300-210 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
Purchasing should clearly understand the intended use of an item in order to determine if the description given in the purchase request is adequate and accurate. If there is any question, purchasing management should
A. solicit a better description from the user
B. revise the description to conform to market terminology
C. substitute a comparable item
D. refuse to process the request
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following is the MOST serious problem with the use of supplier inputs into
specification and work statement development?
A. The potential for a supplier to structure the specifications in a manner that prevents competition
B. The inability of a supplier to comply with the time constraint imposed by the buyer
C. A lack of technical or technological expertise among supplier personnel
D. The potential for the supplier to ignore quality considerations even when requested by the buyer
300-210 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
The type of evaluation required to determine supplier capability may vary depending on which of the following? I. Complexity of the purchase to be made II. Purchaser’s knowledge of the firms being considered
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 7
When attempting to source and qualify potential bidders for a project requiring a highly technical scope of work, which of the following factors will be the LEAST important consideration?
A. Financial stability
B. Location
C. References
D. Previous experience
300-210 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
A using department requests that a buyer purchase a specific brand-name product. In this situation, the buyer should FIRST do which of the following?
A. Attempt to negotiate a lower price with the supplier of the brand-name product
B. Search for competitive suppliers that furnish similar products
C. Attempt to persuade the user to furnish performance specifications
D. Appeal the request to higher purchasing management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be required on a purchase requisition?
A. The account to be charged
B. An authorized signature
C. The date the materials are required
D. The name of the freight carrier
300-210 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following is NOT a solution to the “classic” small order problem?
A. The electronic transmission of orders
B. Competitive bidding
C. Blanket orders
D. Purchase order drafts
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
The initial stage of a cost analysis involves
A. comparing previous prices
B. obtaining a cost breakdown
C. examining financial statements
D. comparing historical costs
300-210 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following costs is specifically EXCLUDED from the process of cost analysis?
A. Indirect
B. Overhead
C. Semivariable
D. Sunk
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
When establishing procurement plans for the purchase of products or services, which of the following is of LEAST consideration in the classification of needs?
A. Monetary value
B. Specifications
C. Repetitive or non-repetitive need
D. Strategic or operational need
300-210 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a driver of purchases of standard materials that are common and in repetitive use?
A. Bill of material
B. Commitment of funds
C. Production plan
D. Internal customer order
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
Specifications refer to all of the following EXCEPT
A. purchase descriptions
B. quality requirements
C. product descriptions
D. purchase conditions
300-210 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
To source a part presently made in-house, which of the following actions would be LEAST appropriate?
A. Soliciting manufacturing’s approval to ensure future cooperation
B. Obtaining accurate specifications for the item to be purchased
C. Developing a good understanding of present true internal costs
D. Developing a list of potential sources from which to solicit
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
In the second step of two-step bidding, prices are requested from
A. all suppliers submitting acceptable technical proposals in the first step
B. all suppliers qualified to submit proposals in the first step
C. all suppliers submitting proposals in the first step
D. the three suppliers submitting the best proposals in the first step
300-210 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
If MIS requests a full use copy of a piece of software for evaluation, it is essential that the purchasing department
A. have return shipping costs paid by the supplier
B. execute an evaluation license
C. issue a purchase order
D. confirm receipt
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
In an environment where time to market is critical, it is MOST beneficial to do which of the
following?
A. Computerize the quotation system via EDI
B. Have selected suppliers use on-site consignment warehousing
C. Develop two suppliers for every part to assure availability
D. Work jointly with a supplier on the design
300-210 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 20
In a manufacturing stockless inventory program, the purchased raw material physically enters purchased goods inventory at which of the following times?
A. Five days before it is needed
B. One day before it is needed
C. At the time of delivery
D. Never, since it becomes work in progress or goods shipped
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following is MOST suitable for an item that is: 1) used continuously at varying rates; 2) used by only one department within the organization; and 3) a low-cost, high-volume item that is requisitioned frequently?
A. Bill of material
B. Purchase order
C. EDI
D. Systems contract
300-210 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following is TRUE with regard to direct costs?
A. They increase as a function of product/service output.
B. They change as a basis for the allocation of overhead.
C. They decrease per unit as output rises.
D. None of the above
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
Assistance in finding global sources is LEAST likely to come from which of the following?
A. Chambers of Commerce
B. World Wide Web
C. Embassies
D. Trading companies
300-210 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following types of bonds are used to protect purchasers and their organizations?
A. Performance bonds
B. Corporate bonds
C. Bearer bonds
D. Municipal bonds
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 25
A request for bids using an approved products list is an example of what type of solicitation?
A. Two-step bidding
B. Restricted competition
C. Alternate proposals
D. Competitive proposals
300-210 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 26
When a supplier deals directly with several user departments within an organization, this is LEAST likely to lead to which of the following?
A. Bureaucratic problems for purchasing
B. Increased supplier knowledge about the organization
C. Confusion and uncertainty
D. Lower total acquisition costs
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 27
Open-end orders call for which of the following?
A. Purchase of a given amount of material over the term of the contract
B. Delivery of material on specific due dates
C. No obligation on the part of the seller
D. Delivery at fixed prices during a defined period
300-210 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 28
The buyer of a sole-source specialty chemical has, in the last three years, been faced with price increases ranging from 10 percent to 15 percent. To help fight continuing increases, the buyer should FIRST develop which of the following?
A. A trend chart based on the Consumer Price Index
B. A cost model to better understand the supplier’s price
C. A tough, “hold-the-line” bargaining position
D. In-house capability to produce the specialty chemical
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
All of the following are required items in computing total cost in capital equipment procurement analysis EXCEPT
A. production inventory investment
B. installation and start-up costs
C. performance guarantees
D. warranty considerations
300-210 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following members of the buying organization is LEAST likely to be a member of a supplier analysis team?
A. The controller
B. The design engineer
C. The quality assurance manager
D. The production engineer
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following factors generally has NO bearing in a supplier performance rating system?
A. Quality
B. Delivery
C. Past price
D. Service
300-210 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32
Under the terms of the Uniform Commercial Code, a buyer and a supplier may do which of the following? I. Make a binding contract without agreeing on an exact price until a later date II. Revoke a contract at any time if it does not contain an exact price
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
A salesperson, who has no authority to do so, represents herself to be a salesperson for a certain company and solicits orders. A buyer occasionally gives the salesperson orders for the company the salesperson says she represents. The so-called salesperson takes the orders. The company fills the orders without indicating to the buyer that the salesperson is not an authorized agent of the company. According to the law of agency, which of the following statements applies in these circumstances?
A. The salesperson derives no authority to act as an agent because of her misrepresentations to the buyer.
B. The salesperson derives authority to act as an agent because of the acquiescence of the
company whose products she sells and the failure of the company to notify the buyer that the
  salesperson is not its authorized agent.
C. The salesperson derives no authority to act as an agent because she does not possess a written authorization appointing her as an agent.
D. The salesperson derives authority to act as an agent because there is no legal requirement to have an agreement between principal and agent to create an agency.
300-210 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
Of the following, the MOST meaningful indicator of an individual firm’s trend of profitability is the
A. change in after-tax return on average invested capital
B. change in average profit margin on the product line
C. period-to-period change in cost of goods sold
D. earnings per share of common stock
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 35
In determining and evaluating financial strategies, a company purchaser may decide to buy in advance due to anticipated price increases or shortages of a specific commodity. These decisions are considered beneficial to the company if cost/benefit analyses indicates which of the following?
A. Substantial purchase price variance
B. Significant rate of return
C. Lower total cost of ownership
D. Decrease in carrying cost
300-210 dumps Answer: C

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Pass4itsure Cisco Exam 210-250 Dumps Blog Series:

QUESTION NO: 31
Which shared configuration resource stores the public certificate of the user making the request?
A. Security Policy
B. Context Resource
C. JNDI Configuration
D. Identity Resource
210-250 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 32
Which software is necessary in order to manage ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks resources?
A. TIBCO Administrator and TIBCO EMS
B. TIBCO Repository Adapter and TIBCO EMS
C. TIBCO Runtime Agent and TIBCO Administrator
D. TIBCO Rendezvous and TIBCO Runtime Agent
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
Which activities prohibit transitions to other activities?
A. Generate Error and Set Shared Variable
B. Inspector and Catch
C. Catch and Rethrow
D. Rethrow and Generate Error
210-250 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 34
How should you fix out-of-memory errors received by a Wait For JMS Topic Message due to events with no Candidate Key matches?
A. A shorter event timeout should be configured in the Message Event tab of the activity.
B. The size of the LRU cache should be reduced in the Advanced tab of the activity.
C. A shorter process timeout should be configured in the Input tab of the activity.
D. The Candidate Key should be configured as “match-any.”
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 35
What is an acceptable Activation Interval if the Heartbeat Interval is 30 seconds?
A. 15 seconds
B. 35 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 105 seconds
210-250 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 36
What is the best way to implement a business process receiving input from a JMS queue if the process requires sequential processing?
A. use the Sequencing Key field for a JMS Queue Receiver activity
B. use the Sequencing Key field for a Wait for JMS Queue Message activity
C. use the Sequencing Key field for an HTTP Receiver activity
D. use the Sequencing Key field for a JMS Topic Subscriber activity
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 37
By default, ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks 5.9 uses which version of the Java Runtime
Environment?
A. 1.3.2
B. 1.5.0
C. 1.6.0
D. 1.4.2
210-250 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 38
The Send Mail activity uses which email protocol?
A. IMAP
B. HTTP
C. POP3
D. SMTP
E. SNMP
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
Which utilities should you use to perform a scripted deployment from the command line?
A. AppManage and RepoManager
B. buildear and AppManage
C. CorpUserSynchronizer and Domain Utility
D. Domain Utility and buildear
E. RepoManager and CorpUserSynchronizer
210-250 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 40
Which variable type should you use for a project connecting to multiple databases using JDBC Connections if a different set of databases is used for testing and production?
A. Process Variable
B. Global Variable
C. Job Shared Variable
D. System Variable
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 41
Click the Exhibit button. The JMS Queue Receiver is part of the transaction group. Which two events occur if the Read File activity fails? (Choose two.)
A. The transaction rolls back.
B. The message is redelivered.
C. The message is confirmed.
D. The transaction group commits successfully.
E. The JDBC activity rolls back.
210-250 dumps 
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 42
Which Global Variable option should you check to make the Global Variable visible and configurable in TIBCO Administrator?
A. Type
B. Service
C. Deployment
D. Constraint
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
Which connection/shared resource in ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks can reference a JNDI
configuration?
A. HTTP and FTP
B. TCP and JMS
C. FTP and JDBC
D. JMS and JDBC
210-250 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which of the following programs is used for bypassing normal authentication for securing remote access to
a computer?
A. Worm
B. Adware
C. Backdoor
D. Spyware
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which of the following is a name, symbol, or slogan with which a product is identified?
A. Copyright

B. Trademark
C. Trade secret
D. Patent
210-250 vce 
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 46
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of. He has successfully completed the following steps of the preattack phase:
·Information gathering
·Determining network range
·Identifying active machines
·Finding open ports and applications
·OS fingerprinting
·Fingerprinting services
Now John wants to perform network mapping of the We-are-secure network. Which of the following tools can he use to accomplish his task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Traceroute

B. NeoTrace
C. Cheops
D. Ettercap
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 47
John, a malicious hacker, forces a router to stop forwarding packets by flooding it with many open connections simultaneously so that all hosts behind it are effectively disabled. Which of the following attacks is John performing?
A. Replay attack
B. DoS attack
C. ARP spoofing
D. Rainbow attack
210-250 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
Which of the following statements are correct about spoofing and session hijacking?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Spoofing is an attack in which an attacker can spoof the IP address or other identity of the targetand the valid user cannot be active.
B. Session hijacking is an attack in which an attacker takes over the session, and the valid user’ssession is disconnected.
C. Session hijacking is an attack in which an attacker takes over the session, and the valid user’ssession is not disconnected.
D. Spoofing is an attack in which an attacker can spoof the IP address or other identity of the targetbut the valid user can be active.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 49
In which of the following DoS attacks does an attacker send an ICMP packet larger than 65,536 bytes to the target system?
A. Fraggle
B. Jolt
C. Teardrop
D. Ping of death
210-250 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
John works as a Professional Ethical Hacker for NetPerfect Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. All client computers are running on Red Hat 7.0 Linux. The Sales Manager of the company complains to John that his system contains an unknown package named as tar.gz and his documents are exploited. To resolve the problem, John uses a Port scanner to enquire about the open ports and finds out that the HTTP server service port on 27374 is open. He suspects that the other computers on the network are also facing the same problem. John discovers that a malicious application is using the synscan tool to randomly generate IP addresses. Which of the following worms has attacked the computer?
A. Code red
B. Ramen
C. LoveLetter

D. Nimda
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
Which two technologies should research groups use for secure VPN access while traveling?
(Click the Exhibit button on the toolbar to see the case study.) Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SSL
B. Kerberos authentication
C. PPTP
D. Smart cards
E. Encrypting File System (EFS)
210-250 exam 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 52
Victor wants to use Wireless Zero Configuration (WZC) to establish a wireless network connection using his computer running on Windows XP operating system. Which of the following are the most likely threats to his computer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Information of probing for networks can be viewed using a wireless analyzer and may be used to gain access.
B. Attacker can use the Ping Flood DoS attack if WZC is used.
C. Attacker by creating a fake wireless network with high power antenna cause Victor’s computer to associate with his network to gain access.
D. It will not allow the configuration of encryption and MAC filtering. Sending information is not secure on wireless network.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 53
Which of the following uses public key cryptography to encrypt the contents of files?
A. EFS
B. DFS
C. NTFS
D. RFS
210-250 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which of the following softwares is used to perform constant monitoring of the network infrastructure?
A. Logdog
B. THCHydra
C. IPSentry
D. Cain
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008 network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest domain-based network. The company has recently provided fifty laptops to its sales team members. You are required to configure an 802.11 wireless network for the laptops. The sales team members must be able to use their data placed at a server in a cabled network. The planned network should be able to handle the threat of unauthorized access and data interception by an unauthorized user. You are also required to prevent the sales team members from communicating directly to one another. Which of the following actions will you perform to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Implement the open system authentication for the wireless network.
B. Implement the IEEE 802.1X authentication for the wireless network.
C. Configure the wireless network to use WEP encryption for the data transmitted over a wireless network.
D. Using group policies, configure the network to allow the wireless computers to connect to the infrastructure networks only.
E. Using group policies, configure the network to allow the wireless computers to connect to the ad hoc networks only.
210-250 dumps 
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 56
Which of the following statements are true about session hijacking?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. TCP session hijacking is when a hacker takes over a TCP session between two machines.
B. It is used to slow the working of victim’s network resources.
C. Use of a long random number or string as the session key reduces session hijacking.
D. It is the exploitation of a valid computer session to gain unauthorized access to informationor services in a computer system.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 57
Which of the following Linux rootkits allows attackers to hide files, processes, and network connections? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Phalanx2
B. Adore
C. Knark
D. Beastkit
210-250 pdf 
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 58
Who among the following are security experts who specialize in penetration testing and other testing methodologies to ensure that their company’s information systems are secure? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Black hat hackers
B. White hat hackers
C. Script Kiddies
D. Ethical hackers
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 59
You work as a Network Administrator for ABC Inc. The company uses a secure wireless network. John complains to you that his computer is not working properly. What type of security audit do you need to conduct to resolve the problem?
A. Independent audit
B. Operational audit
C. Non-operational audit
D. Dependent audit
210-250 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word is software that is a subcategory of malware and refers to unwanted software that performs malicious actions on a user’s computer. Some its examples are Trojan, adware, and spyware.
Correct Answer: Crimeware
QUESTION NO: 61
Which two statements are true about the Catch activity? (Choose two.)
A. It is used to catch an error from any activity that has a transition into it.
B. It may be used in subprocesses.
C. It allows a transition back to the main execution path before the End activity.
D. Multiple Catch activities might be in the same exception scope.
210-250 exam 
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 62
What are two places the domain properties can be found? (Choose two.)
A. TIBCO_HOME/domain
B. TIBCO_HOME/administrator/domain
C. TIBCO_HOME/repository
D. TIBCO_HOME/designer/domain
E. TIBCO_HOME/tra/domain
Answer: B,E

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Pass4itsure Cisco Exam 210-451 Dumps Blog Series:
QUESTION 19
Refer to the command line display below:
vsan database
vsan 1000 name FCoE
vlan 1000
fcoe vlan 1000
int e1/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1000
no shut
int vfc10
bind interface e1/1
switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
no shut
On which line does the error occur that prevents FCoE from operating correctly in a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. fcoe vlan 1000
B. switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
C. int vfc10
D. bind interface e1/1
210-451 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
210-451 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
210-451 pdf 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION NO: 24
A Google AdWords user has created an ad for his Website promoting free pen sets. The Internet users have clicked the ad and provided information for the free pen sets to be delivered to their home address. Google has learned that the Google AdWords user was offering the free pens in order to collect private information. What will Google do to this Google AdWords user?
A. The Google AdWords user’s ad will be paused until the user verifies the intent of the free pen offer.
B. The Google AdWords user’s ad will not be allowed to continue running.
C. Nothing – this is fine as Google doesn’t monitor the intent and purposes of Websites that participate in the Google AdWords program.
D. The Google AdWords user’s ad will be allowed to continue running for 48 hours – in which time the user must verify the intent of the free pen offer. If the verification process fails the ad will be halted.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 25
Don is creating an ad campaign for his organization and he explains to Tom, his supervisor, how bidding works on Google AdWords. If Don is using the cost-per-click approach for bidding and Google AdWords, which one of the following statements best describes how bidding works in Google AdWords and the ad’s position?
A. Raising your CPC bid can improve your ad’s position, and lowering your bid can decrease your ad’s position.
B. Lowering your CPC bid can improve your ad’s position, and raising your bid can decrease your ad’s position.
C. Raising your CPC bid can improve your ad’s position, and lowering your bid can decrease your ad’s position. Keep in mind, however, that ads are not ranked solely by their bid.
D. Bids don’t affect where the Google AdWords is actually displayed – it’s the budget of the campaign
210-451 vce 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26
Jen is a client that’s reviewing your work as her Google AdWords consultant. Jen is confused about the quality score and how it affects her ad on Google. Which one of the following, according to Google, is NOT a factor in determining the quality score for ad?
A. The relevance of the keyword to the ads in its ad group
B. Jen’s account’s performance in the geographical region where the ad will be shown
C. The quality of Jen’s landing page
D. The number of keywords targeted
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 27
You are working with a client to discuss how their ad will appear in the Google Network. You tell the client that they can customize the ad’s content placement, but the customer doesn’t understand the concept of content placement. Which one of the following is the best description of content placement in the Google Network?
A. A placement describes the premium to low-levelminimums for an ad to be placed on a Google Network participant’s page.
B. A placement can be an entire Website, a subset of a Website, or even an individual ad unitpositioned on a single page.
C. A placement is the order in which an advertisement is displayed on a Google Network’s
participant’s page.
D. A placement is where the Google AdWords ad will appear on the Internet.
210-451 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 28
Your client is skeptical about participating in the Google Content Network with their advertisement. You tell your client that by participating in the network they’ll reach a larger percentage of potential customers than by not participating in the network. According to Google, what percentage of unique Interest users are reached through the Google Content Network?
A. Over 75 percent
B. Over 80 percent
C. Over 50 percent
D. 100 percent
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 29
You are an SEO consultant for Henry’s company. Henry is interested in the Google AdWords program, but he’s mostly interested in branding his site and getting ad visibility. With this in mind, which bidding option would you recommend to Henry?
A. Conversion optimizer
B. Cost-per-view
C. Cost-per-click bidding
D. Cost-per-thousand impressions
210-451 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 30
You are a Google AdWords consultant for your client who is developing a new ad. Your client has asked if you could create a mind map to help create keywords and ideas for what his clients may be searching for. What tool can you use to create this chart for your client?
A. Google analytics
B. Google trends
C. Google advanced search
D. Wonder wheel
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 31
Juan is the SEO Manager for his company and he’s creating a Google AdWords campaign. Juan is trying to determine how Google positions ads on the page of search listings. Which one of the following is the correct explanation of how Google positions advertisements?
A. Ads are positioned on pages based on their Ad Rank, which is a combination of Juan’s bid and a quality assurance metric called Performance Score.
B. Ads are positioned on pages based on their Ad Rank, which is a combination of Juan’s bid and a relevancy metric called Relevant Score.
C. Ads are positioned on pages based on their Conversion Rank, which is a combination of Juan’s bid and a quality assurance metric called Relevancy Score.
D. Ads are positioned on pages based on their Ad Rank, which is a combination of Juan’s bid and a relevancy metric called Quality Score.
210-451 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 32
Seth has created an image advertisement for his client. After a week of creating the ad, Seth now wants to create a report for the image ad. Where can Seth create the image ad report?
A. Sign into Google AdWords, Reports tab, Statistics, Create Report, Ad Performance, Image Ads.
B. Sign into Google AdWords, Statistics, Create Report, Ad Performance, Image Ads.
C. Sign into Google AdWords, Ad Performance, Reports tab, Statistics, Create Report, Image Ads.
D. Sign into Google AdWords, Ad Performance, Image Ads, Create Report.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
You have created an ad campaign for your company that sells business cards online. You want to target specific types of Websites in the Google Content Network. How can you choose what types of Websites your business card advertisement will appear on?
A. You can choose where you ad willappear by using the managed placement options for the Google Content Network.
B. The keywords you select for your ad will determine where your advertisement will appear within the Google Content Network.
C. Google uses automatic placements for all ContentNetwork, but you can ad negative keywords to avoid certain Website content.
D. The Google Content Network does not allow you to choose the sites your ad will appear. All lacements are automatic.
210-451 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 34
You would like to edit your Google AdWords account to change the alerts you receive from
Google. You do not want to receive any alerts on your mobile phone. How can you change this setting?
A. All Google AdWords alerts are delivered online through the Google AdWords Account snapshot page.
B. Google AdWords does not send alerts to mobile phones, only to users through Google email addresses.
C. Within Google AdWords click My Account, Account Preferences, and then Notification Preferences to change the communication settings.
D. Within Google AdWords click My Account, Account Preferences, and then Communication
Preferences to change the Notification settings.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
Henry is managing a Google AdWords campaign for his client that has a pet shop. The client is located in Bloomington, Indiana and wants to specifically target people within 40 miles on Bloomington. How can Henry best set these specifications for the Pet Shop?
A. Henry can do this through the Custom tab of the Locations and Languages section of the ad campaign.
B. Henry can do this through the Custom tab of the Locations and Demographics section of the ad campaign.
C. Henry can do this through the Custom tab of the Locations, Languages, and Demographics section of the ad campaign.
D. Henry can do this through the Locale tab of the Locations section of the ad campaign.
210-451 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
Consider an advertiser that is trying to sell more coffee beans. The advertiser has identified keywords for the ad groups: gourmet coffee beans, organic coffee beans, and French roast beans. Which keyword wouldn’t be a good choice to include in the ad group gourmet coffee beans?
A. Gourmet coffee
B. French roast coffee beans
C. Gourmet coffee beans
D. Specialty coffee
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 37
When you create a new ad group in Google AdWords you have to name the ad group, create the ad, and then what other action?
A. Define the timeframe the ad should run within.
B. Define the budget.
C. Define the campaign the ad group belongs to.
D. Define the keywords.
210-451 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 38
Halli wants a way to manage her multiple Google AdWords accounts. She wants to perform searches across campaigns, make multiple changes, and send her proposed changes to her clients before actually posting the changes in Google AdWords. How can Halli best accomplish these goals?
A. Halli can create proposed changes in the My Client Center for review by her clients before posting them.
B. Halli can download the ad statistics, keywords, and campaign events and perform the work offline in an Excel spreadsheet.
C. Halli can use the AdWords Editor application to edit offline and then later post her changes.
D. Halli can use the Google AdWords API to create her own application to accomplish her goals.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 39
Gary is curious about creating a Google AdWords campaign. Gary mainly wants to people to click on his ad and arrive at his site. Which type of bidding should Gary choose?
A. Directive bidding
B. CPA bidding
C. CPM bidding
D. Automatic bidding
210-451 pdf 
Answer: D

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Apple’s Knowledge Navigator Development in the Internet Age

This week the first transistor in Bell Labs and the two parc-linking the technology development milestones at Xerox’s Palo Alto pc to this year’s 30th anniversary knowledge Navigation, the computer was used as an incentive by Apple CEO John Sculley. Sculley told me earlier this year that he wanted to inspire people to believe that we were not the end of computer creativity, but only at the very beginning of the journey. According to Moore’s law, Sculley says they are confident that after 1987 they will be able to do multimedia, build communications with computers, simulate them, and develop computers that can act as intelligent assistants. The problem is “how to present it to people so that they believe it will happen” and the answer is “concept video.”

Apple

70 years ago this week, December 23, 1947, has proved to be a fundamental innovation in Moore’s law. Under the command of Walter H. Brattain and John A. Bardeen, B.sockley discovered the transistor effect and developed and demonstrated a point-contact germanium transistor. This leads directly to the development of solid-state devices that revolutionize the electronics industry and change the way people live, learn, work, and play around the world.

Over the next few years, many inventions were based on the ingenuity of engineers who figured out how to plug more and more transistors into integrated circuits, a process that allows computing devices to continue to be miniaturized while providing more power to perform more tasks.

The Austrian extension, inspired by Doug Engelbart (Doug Engelbart) ‘s “Mother of All demos” (Mother all Demos) (or all of the concept videos/demos about computing the future), inspired Steve For the first time in December 1979, Jobs saw the Parc on Xerox. The Alto graphical user interface (GUI) is used in Apple’s Lisa and Macintosh PCs. “It’s like taking a veil out of my eyes and I can see what the future of computing is,” Jobs told Isaacson Walter Isaacson.

Apple

In the 1986, Jobs was no longer with Apple and was busy using next computers to explore the future of computing. Sculley said Apple was “rising”. But Apple researcher Allen Kei said, “We won’t have Xeorx next time.” Through this Kay may mean that they miss Steve Jobs’s talents, recognize the emerging technologies and their potential to become successful products and his talents to create a compelling vision based on his insights. Sculley said: “I believe it is important to let people know that Apple is still creative after Steve leaves.”

Sculley, who visited universities and research laboratories to investigate emerging technologies and ideas, and discussed with Apple engineers, culminated in the Knowledge Navigation video, which he described as a vision of an interactive multimedia communications world in which computing is only a commodity enabler, Knowledge applications will be accessed by intelligent agents on a network that is connected to a large number of digitized information. Sculley predicts that by 2025 “This technology will be useful, indispensable, and will be done on the job” and the medical and educational redesign.

Apple

With his belief in the future, Sculley has invested or participated in the application of large data analysis and artificial intelligence to recreate work and health care, which include Zeta Global,rxadvance and arranges ticker. They no longer live in linear time

The knowledge navigation helps attract and retain talent, according to Sculley, it inspires a number of projects and products, QuickTime, desktop multimedia demo software for the Macintosh; Hypercard, the first real interactive scripting software can be used without programming knowledge; Newton, then known as the first hand-held computing device or personal digital assistant (PDA), was the product category. Newton itself was not successful, but it contained the ARM processor (the type of smartphones) that Apple has developed together. The company later sold arm licences at a price of 800 million dollars.

When we talking about “knowledge navigation” or smart assistants-Amazon’s Alexa, Google Now ans Apple’s Siri, Microsoft’s Cortana has finally become a reality, but they are far from demonstrating versatility and understanding (ie, intelligence) of visionary knowledge navigation.

It is also possible that we have never lived a linear time, which makes predictions, especially about the future, become difficult. As Peter Denning wrote in the ACM Newsletter (September 2012): “Unpredictability is not due to lack of information about system operating rules, due to insufficient processing capacity or limited storage.” This is because the results of the system depend on unpredictable events and human statements (social support for the adoption of specific technologies). Don’t be stupid enough to think that smart experts or powerful machines can overcome this possibility. Or as Metcalfe (Bob Metcalfe) wrote in the Internet crash (Internet collapses): “It’s relatively easy to predict the future. It’s hard to make accurate predictions. When the time is right, it is the hardest.

Apple

However, no matter how many predictions have been made, or because so many predictions have gone wrong, we are still looking for and creating signposts, potential choices, inspiring visions. In a series of papers edited in 1997, Ning and Metcalfe wrote that they wanted the book to be not about prophecy, but to propose “possibilities, questions, and choices that we would face about how information technology affects our future.”

Related Apple News:https://www.forbes.com/sites/gilpress/2017/12/18/apple-and-the-future-of-computing/#6183494e9964

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Pass4itsure Microsoft Exam 70-734 Dumps Blog Series:

QUESTION NO: 110
Which of the following viruses/worms uses the buffer overflow attack?
A. Chernobyl (CIH) virus
B. Nimda virus
C. Klez worm
D. Code red worm
70-734 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 111
Which of the following techniques is used when a system performs the penetration testing with the objective of accessing unauthorized information residing inside a computer?
A. Van Eck Phreaking
B. Phreaking
C. Biometrician
D. Port scanning
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 112
Mark works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Inc. The company has both wired and wireless networks. An attacker attempts to keep legitimate users from accessing services that they require. Mark uses IDS/IPS sensors on the wired network to mitigate the attack. Which of the following attacks best describes the attacker’s intentions?
A. Internal attack
B. Reconnaissance attack
C. Land attack
D. DoS attack
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Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 113
Which of the following functions in c/c++ can be the cause of buffer overflow? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. printf()
B. strcat()
C. strcpy()
D. strlength()
Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 114
You work as a System Administrator in SunSoft Inc. You are running a virtual machine on Windows Server 2003. The virtual machine is protected by DPM. Now, you want to move the virtual machine to another host. Which of the following steps can you use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Remove the original virtual machine from the old server and stop the protection for the original virtual machine.
B. Run consistency check.
C. Add the copied virtual machine to a protection group.
D. Copy the virtual machine to the new server.
70-734 pdf 
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 115
In the DNS Zone transfer enumeration, an attacker attempts to retrieve a copy of the entire zone file for a domain from a DNS server. The information provided by the DNS zone can help an attacker gather user names, passwords, and other valuable information. To attempt a zone transfer, an attacker must be connected to a DNS server that is the authoritative server for that zone. Besides this, an attacker can launch a Denial of Service attack against the zone’s DNS servers by flooding them with a lot of requests. Which of the following tools can an attacker use to perform a DNS zone transfer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Host
B. Dig
C. DSniff
D. NSLookup
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 116
Which of the following types of malware can an antivirus application disable and destroy?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Rootkit
B. Trojan
C. Crimeware
D. Worm
E. Adware
F. Virus
Answer: A,B,D,F
70-734 vce Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 117
Which of the following penetration testing phases involves reconnaissance or data gathering?
A. Attack phase
B. Pre-attack phase
C. Post-attack phase
D. Out-attack phase
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 118
You work as an Incident handling manager for a company. The public relations process of the company includes an event that responds to the e-mails queries. But since few days, it is identified that this process is providing a way to spammers to perform different types of e-mail attacks. Which of the following phases of the Incident handling process will now be involved in resolving this process and find a solution? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Eradication
B. Contamination
C. Preparation
D. Recovery
E. Identification
70-734 exam 
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 119 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate name of the rootkit.
A rootkit uses device or platform firmware to create a persistent malware image.
Answer: firmware
QUESTION NO: 120 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
is a free Unix subsystem that runs on top of Windows.
70-734 dumps 
Answer: Cygwin
QUESTION NO: 121
Which of the following tools uses common UNIX/Linux tools like the strings and grep commands to
search core system programs for signatures of the rootkits?
A. rkhunter
B. OSSEC
C. chkrootkit
D. Blue Pill
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 122
Which of the following rootkits is used to attack against full disk encryption systems?
A. Boot loader rootkit
B. Library rootkit
C. Hypervisor rootkit
D. Kernel level rootkit
70-734 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 123
Which of the following statements are true about Dsniff?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It contains Trojans.
B. It is a virus.
C. It is antivirus.
D. It is a collection of various hacking tools.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 124
Which of the following rootkits patches, hooks, or replaces system calls with versions that hide information about the attacker?
A. Library rootkit
B. Kernel level rootkit
C. Hypervisor rootkit
D. Boot loader rootkit
70-734 vce 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 125
You work as a Security Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. You want to use a scanning technique which works as a reconnaissance attack. The technique should direct to a specific host or network to determine the services that the host offers. Which of the following scanning techniques can you use to accomplish the task?
A. IDLE scan
B. Nmap
C. SYN scan
D. Host port scan
70-734 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 126
Which of the following actions is performed by the netcat command given below?
nc 55555 < /etc/passwd
A. It changes the /etc/passwd file when connected to the UDP port 55555.
B. It resets the /etc/passwd file to the UDP port 55555.
C. It fills the incoming connections to /etc/passwd file.
D. It grabs the /etc/passwd file when connected to UDP port 55555.
70-734 exma Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 127
Which of the following programs can be used to detect stealth port scans performed by a
malicious hacker? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. nmap
B. scanlogd
C. libnids
D. portsentry
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
70-734 dumps

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